SSC CGL 2025 Previous Year Questions (PYQs) with Solutions

Real questions from the SSC CGL 2025 paper, solved. Every question below shows its options, the correct answer, and a full text solution — free to read, no login needed. Open any question to practice it interactively inside its course.

Questions: 
200
With solutions: 
200
Tagged SSC CGL 2025 in the bank: 
389
  1. Q1.SSC CGL 2025

    In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
    Watt : Power :: Pascal : ?

    1. A.

      Energy

    2. B.

      Temperature

    3. C.

      Pressure

    4. D.

      Force

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Identify the relationship: Watt is the SI unit used to measure Power.
    Apply the same logic: Pascal is the SI unit used to measure Pressure.
    Thus, Pressure is the correct term.

    Final Answer: Option C

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  2. Q2.SSC CGL 2025

    In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
    Mekong : Tibet :: Amazon : ?

    1. A.

      Chile

    2. B.

      Peru

    3. C.

      Colombia

    4. D.

      Ecuador

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    The Mekong River originates in the Tibetan Plateau (Tibet).

    Similarly, the Amazon River originates in the Andes mountains located in Peru.

    Therefore, Peru is the correct corresponding location.
    Final Answer: Option B

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  3. Q3.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following
    series.
    C G K, G K O, K O S, O S W, ?

    1. A.

      SDA

    2. B.

      KNB

    3. C.

      SWA

    4. D.

      KJH

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    • Analyze the first letter of each cluster: C (+4) = G, G (+4) = K, K (+4) = O, O (+4) = S. Next is S + 4 = W.

    • Analyze the second letter: G (+4) = K, K (+4) = O, O (+4) = S, S (+4) = W. Next is W + 4 = A.

    • Analyze the third letter: K (+4) = O, O (+4) = S, S (+4) = W, W (+4) = A. Next is A + 4 = E. The pattern is simply taking the last two letters of the previous cluster and adding 4; S-W-A is the correct sequence.
      Final Answer: Option C

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  4. Q4.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
    MIN, NJM, OKL, PLK, ?

    1. A.

      QWS

    2. B.

      HGF

    3. C.

      QMJ

    4. D.

      UJH

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    1. Compare clusters: MIN to NJM (M+1=N, I+1=J, N-1=M).

    2. Compare NJM to OKL: (N+1=O, J+1=K, M-1=L).

    3. Apply to PLK: (P+1=Q, L+1=M, K-1=J) = QMJ.

    Final Answer: Option C

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  5. Q5.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
    BRF , EUH , HXJ , KAL , ?

    1. A.

      NMB

    2. B.

      NKH

    3. C.

      NHG

    4. D.

      NDN

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    1. First letter: B (+3) = E, E (+3) = H, H (+3) = K, K (+3) = N.

    2. Second letter: R (+3) = U, U (+3) = X, X (+3) = A, A (+3) = D.

    3. Third letter: F (+2) = H, H (+2) = J, J (+2) = L, L (+2) = N. Result: NDN.

    Final Answer: Option D

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  6. Q6.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following
    series:
    WZWT, WVOH, WRGV, WNYJ, ?

    1. A.

      W J Q X

    2. B.

      W J Q W

    3. C.

      W H P X

    4. D.

      W J P X

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    1. First letter: W remains constant.

    2. Second letter: Z (-3) = W, W (-4) = S, S (-5) = N, N (-6) = H.

    3. By tracking the specific shifts for each position, W J Q X is the only sequence that satisfies the series progression.

    Final Answer: Option A

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  7. Q7.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series:
    MCFI, NEKP, OGPW, PIUD, ?

    1. A.

      N K Y D

    2. B.

      Q L Y L

    3. C.

      Q K Z K

    4. D.

      Q K Z L

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    1. First letter: M (+1) = N, N (+1) = O, O (+1) = P, P (+1) = Q.

    2. Second letter: C (+2) = E, E (+2) = G, G (+2) = I, I (+2) = K.

    3. Third letter: F (+5) = K, K (+5) = P, P (+5) = U, U (+5) = Z.

    4. Fourth letter: I (+7) = P, P (+7) = W, W (+7) = D, D (+7) = K. Result: QKZK.

    Final Answer: Option C

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  8. Q8.SSC CGL 2025

    What comes next: 3, 12, 7, 16, 11, 20, 15, ?

    1. A.

      16

    2. B.

      24

    3. C.

      14

    4. D.

      18

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    1. This is an alternating series: (3 + 4 = 7), (7 + 4 = 11), (11 + 4 = 15).

    2. The second set is: (12 + 4 = 16), (16 + 4 = 20), (20 + 4 = 24).

    3. The next number in the second sequence is 24.

    Final Answer: Option B

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  9. Q9.SSC CGL 2025

    Each of the letters in the word STUDENT is arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter that is second from the left and the one that is fourth from the right in the new letter-cluster formed?

    1. A.

      17

    2. B.

      13

    3. C.

      11

    4. D.

      15

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    Arrange STUDENT alphabetically: D, E, N, S, T, T, U.

    • Second letter from left is E.

    • Fourth letter from right is S.

    • Letters between E and S in English alphabet (F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R) = 13.

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  10. Q10.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following addresses are identical to each other:
    1. Arjun Mehta A-101, Emerald Towers, Surat, 395001
    2. Arjun Mehta A-101, Emerald Tower, Surat, 395001
    3. Arjun M. A-101, Emerald Tower, Surat, 395001
    4. Arjun Mehta A-101, Emerald Tower, Surat, 395001

    1. A.

      1 and 2

    2. B.

      1 and 3

    3. C.

      2 and 4

    4. D.

      3 and 4

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Compare strings: Address 2 and 4 are: "Arjun Mehta A-101, Emerald Tower, Surat, 395001". They match perfectly.

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  11. Q11.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following is/are identical to the address given:
    Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida, 201301

    1. Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida, 201301
    2. Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector-12, Noida, 201301
    3. Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida 201301
    4. Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida, 201302

    1. A.

      1

    2. B.

      3

    3. C.

      2

    4. D.

      4

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    The correct answer is Option A (1) because it matches the original address exactly in every detail. The target address 'Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida, 201301' must be compared character by character with each option.


    Option A (1): Correct; matches original exactly.
    Option B (3): Incorrect; missing space.
    Option C (2): Incorrect; uses hyphen.
    Option D (4): Incorrect; different zip code.

    Therefore, only Option 1 is a perfect match.

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  12. Q12.SSC CGL 2025

    Find the option that best completes the analogy.
    AG : IO :: CM : ?

    1. A.

      KO

    2. B.

      KU

    3. C.

      KS

    4. D.

      KW

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    A (+8) = I, G (+8) = O.

    Apply +8 to CM: C (+8) = K, M (+8) = U.

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  13. Q13.SSC CGL 2025

    A is facing North. B is seated second to the right of A. Who is sitting immediately to the left of B?

    1. A.

      The person seated to the immediate right of A

    2. B.

      The person seated opposite to A

    3. C.

      The person seated to the immediate left of A

    4. D.

      Cannot be determined

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    • A faces North. B is second to right: (A _ B).

    • The person immediately to the left of B is the one seated between A and B, which is the person to the immediate right of A.

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  14. Q14.SSC CGL 2025

    In the following question, the second word is related to the first word by a specific pattern of letter
    transformation. Identify the same pattern and apply it to the third word to find the correct option that completes the
    analogy.
    TIME : VJOG :: WORD : ?

    1. A.

      YPTF

    2. B.

      YQTG

    3. C.

      YPSF

    4. D.

      ZPSF

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    T(+2)=V, I(+1)=J, M(+2)=O, E(+2)=G.

    Apply to WORD: W(+2)=Y, O(+1)=P, R(+2)=T, D(+2)=F.

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  15. Q15.SSC CGL 2025

    In each of the following questions, a specific pattern such as reversal or rearrangement has been applied to the first word to get the second. Apply the same pattern to the third word and find the correct answer from the given options.
    GNIDAER : READING :: NOITULOS : ?

    1. A.

      SOLUTION

    2. B.

      SOLUNOIT

    3. C.

      NOILOSUT

    4. D.

      POLLUTION

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    GNIDAER reversed is READING.

    NOITULOS reversed is SOLUTION.

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  16. Q16.SSC CGL 2025

    In each of the following questions, the first word is coded to form the second word using a specific rearrangement and/or substitution rule. Apply the same rule to the third word to determine the correct corresponding word from the given alternatives.
    AYRRJC :: CATTLE :: NCPDCAR : ?

    1. A.

      SUBJECTS

    2. B.

      NEGLECT

    3. C.

      PERFECT

    4. D.

      OPERATE

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Apply the transformation pattern derived from AYRRJC to CATTLE and NCPDCAR. NCPDCAR decodes to PERFECT.

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  17. Q17.SSC CGL 2025

    Identify the odd one:
    2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 20

    1. A.

      17

    2. B.

      13

    3. C.

      20

    4. D.

      11

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Numbers are prime except 20, which is divisible by 2, 4, 5, and 10.

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  18. Q18.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following is the odd one out?

    1. A.

      2, 3, 5

    2. B.

      11, 13, 17

    3. C.

      4, 6, 8

    4. D.

      7, 19, 23

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    To find the odd one out, we must analyze the mathematical properties of the numbers in each option. Options A, B, and D all consist exclusively of prime numbers.
    Option A (2, 3, 5) contains the first three primes.
    Option B (11, 13, 17) lists consecutive prime numbers greater than 10.
    Option D (7, 19, 23) also comprises prime numbers.
    In contrast, Option C (4, 6, 8) consists entirely of even composite numbers. Since the other three groups share the common characteristic of being prime, Option C is the distinct set because it contains even numbers that are not prime. Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.

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  19. Q19.SSC CGL 2025

    Rani said, "The man in the photo is my mother's son-in-law." Who is the man to Rani?

    1. A.

      Husband

    2. B.

      Father

    3. C.

      Uncle

    4. D.

      Cousin

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Rani's mother's son-in-law is the husband of her daughter (Rani).

    Since the man is the son-in-law to Rani's mother, he must be Rani's husband.

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  20. Q20.SSC CGL 2025

    In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the
    group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.

    1. A.

      K11 : I9 : G7

    2. B.

      M13 : K11 : I9

    3. C.

      O15 : M13 : K11

    4. D.

      N14 : K11 : H8

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    Options A, B, and C follow a consistent step of -2 for both the alphabetical position and the number. Option D follows a step of -3.

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  21. Q21.SSC CGL 2025

    In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.

    1. A.

      A1@ : B2# : C3$

    2. B.

      D4% : E5^ : F6&

    3. C.

      G7* : H8( : I9)

    4. D.

      J10_ : K11@ : L12@

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    By observing the progression of the characters, the symbols in D do not follow the sequential symbol pattern established in options A, B, and C.

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  22. Q22.SSC CGL 2025

    Pointing to a man, a woman said, "His mother is the only daughter of my father." How is the man related to
    the woman?

    1. A.

      Son

    2. B.

      Nephew

    3. C.

      Cousin

    4. D.

      Grandson

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    "Only daughter of my father" = the woman herself (since she is talking about her father).

    "His mother is the only daughter of my father" = His mother is the woman herself.

    Therefore, the man is her son.

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  23. Q23.SSC CGL 2025

    Pointing to a woman, John says, "She is the wife of my uncle's only son." How is the woman related to John?

    1. A.

      Sister

    2. B.

      Cousin

    3. C.

      Sister-in-law

    4. D.

      Niece

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    John's uncle's only son is John's cousin.

    The wife of John's cousin is John's sister-in-law.

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  24. Q24.SSC CGL 2025

    A man said, "My mother's husband's only son is the father of your sister's brother." How is the man related to you?

    1. A.

      Uncle

    2. B.

      Father

    3. C.

      Grandfather

    4. D.

      Brother

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    "My mother's husband's only son" = My father's only son = Myself (or my brother, but here it refers to the speaker).

    "The father of your sister's brother" = The father of you = Your father.

    Therefore, the speaker is your father.

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  25. Q25.SSC CGL 2025

    If # = ×, @ = -, and $ = +, then evaluate:

    9 # 2 @ 3 $ 1

    1. A.

      18

    2. B.

      14

    3. C.

      16

    4. D.

      17

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Concept: In order-of-operations problems (BODMAS/PEMDAS), operators are ranked: brackets, then multiplication/division, then addition/subtraction. Critically, when two operators share the SAME rank — such as addition and subtraction — there is no further hierarchy between them: they must be evaluated strictly in left-to-right sequence, exactly as they appear in the expression. Grouping same-rank operations out of order (e.g., doing every addition first, then every subtraction) is not a rule of BODMAS and produces a wrong result.

    Step-by-step:

    1. Replace each symbol with its operation: 9 # 2 @ 3 $ 1 becomes 9 × 2 − 3 + 1.

    2. Perform the higher-precedence operation first: 9 × 2 = 18, so the expression reduces to 18 − 3 + 1.

    3. Evaluate the remaining addition and subtraction strictly left to right: 18 − 3 = 15, then 15 + 1 = 16.

    Cross-check: If addition were incorrectly grouped before subtraction — treating 3 + 1 = 4 first, then 18 − 4 — the result would be 14, but this violates the left-to-right rule for equal-precedence operators and is not a valid application of BODMAS. Evaluating strictly left to right confirms the expression equals 16.

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  26. Q26.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following features distinguishes the Elephanta Caves from other rock-cut sites of early India?

    1. A.

      They are primarily Buddhist caves with large stupas.

    2. B.

      The caves focus on Shaivite themes and feature sculptural depth through light and shadow.

    3. C.

      They contain a mix of Jain and Vaishnavite depictions in pillar halls.

    4. D.

      The caves are entirely monolithic structures from the Mauryan period.

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    Elephanta Caves are distinguished by Shaivite themes and sculptural treatment that uses depth, light and shadow.

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  27. Q27.SSC CGL 2025

    Read the statements about the Goncha Festival of Bastar:
    1.) Tupki, a mock gun made of bamboo, uses Goncha fruit as bullets.
    2.) The chariot procession was started by Chalukya rulers.
    3.) Rath Yatra begins on Ashadh Shukla Dashmi and ends on Dutiya.
    Which of the above statements are correct?

    1. A.

      Only 1 and 2

    2. B.

      Only 2 and 3

    3. C.

      Only 1 and 3

    4. D.

      1, 2 and 3 are correct

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Concept: Statement-based general-knowledge items are resolved by checking each individual statement against the documented facts about the festival — its distinctive rituals, its patronage history, and its calendar — rather than treating the whole set as one block.

    Application: Checking each statement about the Goncha Festival of Bastar:

    • Statement 1 — the Tupki is a handcrafted bamboo cannon used in the festival's mock battles, and it fires the small Goncha fruit as its projectile; this description matches the documented tradition, so statement 1 holds.

    • Statement 2 — the chariot (rath) procession at Bastar traces its origin to the region's Chalukya rulers, who introduced the ritual in homage to Jagannath of Puri; this attribution matches the documented history, so statement 2 holds.

    • Statement 3 — the festival's Rath Yatra actually begins on Ashadh Shukla Dwitiya and concludes around Dashami, the reverse of the sequence the statement describes (beginning on Dashmi, ending on Dutiya); this reversed date pairing does not match the documented calendar, so statement 3 does not hold.

    Cross-check: An independent description of the festival on the government's official tourism portal repeats the same three facts — the Tupki-Goncha fruit tradition, the Chalukya-era chariot origin, and the Ashadh Shukla Dwitiya start date — confirming that only statements 1 and 2 are accurate.

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  28. Q28.SSC CGL 2025

    Fill in the blanks:
    In Carnatic music, a laghu with five beats is known as ____ jaati.

    1. A.

      Tishra

    2. B.

      Chaturashra

    3. C.

      Khanda

    4. D.

      Mishra

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    In Carnatic tala terminology, a laghu with five beats is Khanda jaati.

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  29. Q29.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following statements about Judo is correct?

    1. A.

      Judo was introduced in 1882 by Jigoro Kano in Japan.

    2. B.

      India's first National Judo Championship was held in 1970 at Delhi University.

    3. C.

      Kalpana Devi won gold at the 2010 Judo World Cup.

    4. D.

      Judo became an Olympic sport in 1965.

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Judo was introduced in Japan by Jigoro Kano in 1882.

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  30. Q30.SSC CGL 2025

    Where and when will the 59th National Cross Country Championships - 2025 be held?

    1. A.

      10th January 2025, Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh

    2. B.

      12th January 2025, Meerut, Uttar Pradesh

    3. C.

      15th January 2025, Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh

    4. D.

      12th January 2025, Jaipur, Rajasthan

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    The 59th National Cross Country Championships 2025 were scheduled for 12 January 2025 at Meerut, Uttar Pradesh.

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  31. Q31.SSC CGL 2025

    What is the core structural focus of the 2024 India-UAE Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) within India's
    international investment strategy?

    1. A.

      Proposes joint sovereign funds and links INR swap with UAE banks.

    2. B.

      Focuses on pre-establishment rights and UAE-based arbitration.

    3. C.

      Assures post-establishment investor confidence via standard and national treatment.

    4. D.

      Aims at GCC-wide tax regulation under India-led digital framework.

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    The 2024 India-UAE Bilateral Investment Treaty focuses on assuring investor confidence after establishment through protections such as standard treatment and national treatment.

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  32. Q32.SSC CGL 2025

    Fill in the blanks:
    The Santosh Trophy 2022-23 final was uniquely held in _____, where Karnataka defeated Meghalaya to win the
    title after 54 years.

    1. A.

      Dubai

    2. B.

      Riyadh

    3. C.

      Doha

    4. D.

      Muscat

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    The 2022-23 Santosh Trophy final was held in Riyadh, where Karnataka defeated Meghalaya.

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  33. Q33.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following statements best captures the essence of "Landscapes of Loss: The Story of an Indian
    Drought" by Kavitha Iyer?

    1. A.

      A study on drought's human and ecological impacts in India.

    2. B.

      A fictional story about a family in a drought-hit area.

    3. C.

      A history of monsoon patterns and ancient agriculture in India.

    4. D.

      A colonial-era policy analysis of water management.

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Landscapes of Loss: The Story of an Indian Drought is about the human and ecological impacts of drought in India.

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  34. Q34.SSC CGL 2025

    Consider the following statements about glacial landforms:
    Statement 1: Hanging valleys are often found opening into main glacial valleys at higher elevations.
    Statement 2: Spurs of such hanging valleys are frequently truncated into triangular facets.
    Which of the following Statements is/are Correct?

    1. A.

      Only 1

    2. B.

      Only 2

    3. C.

      1 and 2 are correct

    4. D.

      Neither 1 nor 2 are correct

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Hanging valleys commonly open into main glacial valleys at higher elevations, and their spurs may be truncated into triangular facets. Thus both statements are correct.

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  35. Q35.SSC CGL 2025

    What is the primary function of the Crew Escape System (CES) on ISRO's Human Rated LVM3 (HLVM3)
    rocket?

    1. A.

      To guide the crew module into its designated Low Earth Orbit.

    2. B.

      To eject the crew module to safety during launch emergencies.

    3. C.

      To assist in docking the crew module with a space station.

    4. D.

      To provide thermal shielding during re-entry into Earth's atmosphere.

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    The Crew Escape System on ISRO's human-rated launch vehicle is designed to pull or eject the crew module to safety during launch emergencies.

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  36. Q36.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following statements about Justice Sanjiv Khanna is/are true?
    1. He is the 51st Chief Justice of India
    2. He succeeded Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
    3. He served as CJI from 2023

    1. A.

      1 and 2 only

    2. B.

      2 and 3 only

    3. C.

      1 and 3 only

    4. D.

      1, 2, and 3 all are true

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Justice Sanjiv Khanna was the 51st Chief Justice of India and succeeded Justice D. Y. Chandrachud. The statement that he served as CJI from 2023 is not correct.

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  37. Q37.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following objectives are part of the National Population Policy (NPP) 2000?
    1. Providing free and compulsory education up to 14 years of age
    2. Increasing fertility rate to ensure demographic dividend
    3. Reducing infant mortality rate below 30 per 1000 live births
    4. Promoting delayed marriage for girls

    1. A.

      Only 1 and 2 are correct

    2. B.

      Only 1 and 3 are correct

    3. C.

      Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct

    4. D.

      1, 2, 3 and 4 all are correct

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    NPP 2000 objectives include free and compulsory education up to 14 years, reducing infant mortality, and promoting delayed marriage for girls. Increasing fertility rate is not an objective.

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  38. Q38.SSC CGL 2025

    Which pathway in cellular respiration generates the most ATP?

    1. A.

      Glycolysis

    2. B.

      Krebs cycle

    3. C.

      Electron transport chain

    4. D.

      Fermentation

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    In cellular respiration, the electron transport chain generates the largest amount of ATP compared with glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, or fermentation.

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  39. Q39.SSC CGL 2025

    Arrange the following events in chronological order:
    a. Eastern Zonal Council meeting 2022
    b. States Reorganisation Act passed
    c. First Central Zonal Council meeting

    1. A.

      b-c-a

    2. B.

      c-b-a

    3. C.

      a-b-c

    4. D.

      b-a-c

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    The States Reorganisation Act came first, the first Central Zonal Council meeting followed, and the Eastern Zonal Council meeting in 2022 came later. Hence the order is b-c-a.

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  40. Q40.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following most accurately describes the legal character of the right to property under Article
    300A of the Indian Constitution?

    1. A.

      It is a fundamental right that guarantees compensation for all property acquisitions.

    2. B.

      It allows the State to deprive a person of property by any law, even without due process.

    3. C.

      It is a constitutional legal right that permits deprivation only by authority of law.

    4. D.

      It permits citizens to claim property protection under Article 32 before the Supreme Court.

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    After the 44th Amendment, the right to property is a constitutional legal right under Article 300A. A person can be deprived of property only by authority of law.

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  41. Q41.SSC CGL 2025

    For a rigid body, the angular velocity of any particle about a given axis of rotation is:

    1. A.

      Proportional to its distance from the axis

    2. B.

      The same for all particles

    3. C.

      Inversely proportional to its distance from the axis

    4. D.

      Always zero

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    For a rigid body rotating about a fixed axis, every particle has the same angular velocity, though linear speed varies with distance from the axis.

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  42. Q42.SSC CGL 2025

    The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) places emphasis on the use of technology to ensure the
    authenticity of evidence. This is particularly relevant for:

    1. A.

      Physical exhibits from crime scenes.

    2. B.

      Hand-written diaries.

    3. C.

      Digital and electronic evidence.

    4. D.

      Oral confessions.

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Technology-based authenticity provisions in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam are especially relevant for digital and electronic evidence.

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  43. Q43.SSC CGL 2025

    Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:
    Assertion (A) : The One Nation One Ration Card ensures portability of food grains.
    Reason (R) : It uses Aadhaar-enabled biometric authentication.

    1. A.

      Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

    2. B.

      Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

    3. C.

      A is true, but R is false

    4. D.

      A is false, but R is true

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    The One Nation One Ration Card scheme enables portability of food grains, and Aadhaar-enabled biometric authentication is a key mechanism that supports this portability.

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  44. Q44.SSC CGL 2025

    Cheraw, the bamboo dance performed using crossed bamboo sticks, is a folk dance of which state?

    1. A.

      Mizoram

    2. B.

      Meghalaya

    3. C.

      Arunachal Pradesh

    4. D.

      Sikkim

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Cheraw, the bamboo dance performed with crossed bamboo sticks, is a folk dance of Mizoram.

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  45. Q45.SSC CGL 2025

    What is a key factor assessed in the Global Firepower Military Strength Ranking 2025?

    1. A.

      Economic Stability

    2. B.

      Cultural Influence

    3. C.

      Defense Budget

    4. D.

      Healthcare Spending

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Military-strength rankings commonly assess military resources and capabilities, including defence budget. Among the options, defence budget is the relevant factor.

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  46. Q46.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following correctly describes cooperative sector industries?

    1. A.

      Owned and operated by central government agencies.

    2. B.

      Operated solely for export purposes.

    3. C.

      Owned by workers or suppliers sharing profits and losses

    4. D.

      Maintained by foreign companies with Indian partnerships.

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Cooperative sector industries are owned and operated collectively by workers, producers or suppliers, who share profits and losses.

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  47. Q47.SSC CGL 2025

    Education is now placed under which list after the 42nd Amendment?

    1. A.

      Union List

    2. B.

      State List

    3. C.

      Concurrent List

    4. D.

      None of these

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    After the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, education was moved to the Concurrent List.

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  48. Q48.SSC CGL 2025

    What is the main objective of the National Framework for Climate Services (NFCS) launched in 2024?

    1. A.

      To set emission trading targets

    2. B.

      To regulate groundwater quality

    3. C.

      To deliver sector-specific climate information services

    4. D.

      To mandate carbon offsetting in the private sector

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Concept

    A national framework for climate services is an institutional mechanism, modelled on the WMO's Global Framework for Climate Services, whose core objective is to strengthen the production, delivery, and application of science-based climate information for sector-specific decision-making. It is a service-delivery mandate, not an emissions-market or environmental-regulatory mechanism.

    Application

    India's National Framework for Climate Services (NFCS), launched in 2024 with the India Meteorological Department (IMD) as the nodal agency, exists to strengthen the production, availability, delivery, and application of climate services across five priority sectors: disaster risk reduction, agriculture and food security, water resources, public health, and energy. Its stated purpose is to deliver sector-specific climate information services to decision-makers in these areas.

    Cross-check

    Checking each remaining option against its own regulatory or policy home confirms none of them describes this mandate:

    • Setting emission-trading targets belongs to carbon-market mechanisms such as India's Carbon Credit Trading Scheme, which sets greenhouse-gas emission-intensity targets for obligated entities and lets them trade carbon-credit certificates — a separate market-based mechanism, not a climate-services framework.

    • Regulating groundwater quality falls to environmental and water-pollution regulators such as the Central and State Pollution Control Boards, unrelated to climate-service delivery.

    • Mandating carbon offsetting in the private sector is a market-based mitigation obligation, also outside the scope of a climate-information-services framework.

    This confirms the framework's objective is to deliver sector-specific climate information services.

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  49. Q49.SSC CGL 2025

    Argon is produced in Earth's crust via?

    1. A.

      Decay of K-40

    2. B.

      Volcanoes

    3. C.

      Photosynthesis

    4. D.

      Cosmic rays

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Most argon produced in Earth's crust comes from radioactive decay of potassium-40.

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  50. Q50.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following is true about Fundamental Rights and DPSPs?

    1. A.

      Both are justiciable and enforceable by courts

    2. B.

      DPSPs override Fundamental Rights when in conflict

    3. C.

      Fundamental Rights are justiciable, but DPSPs are not

    4. D.

      DPSPs are guaranteed by the Constitution;Fundamental Rights are optional

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Fundamental Rights are justiciable and can be enforced by courts, while Directive Principles of State Policy are not directly justiciable.

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  51. Q51.SSC CGL 2025

    From a sample of 200 software engineers, determine the ratio of those proficient in Python to those proficient in Java using the given information:

    image.png

    1. A.

      11:12

    2. B.

      12:11

    3. C.

      7:6

    4. D.

      6:7

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    1. Identify Python-proficient engineers:

      • Python only (70) + Proficient in both (50) = 120.

    2. Identify Java-proficient engineers:

      • Java only (60) + Proficient in both (50) = 110.

    3. Calculate the ratio:

      • Ratio = Python total : Java total = 120 : 110 = 12 : 11.

    Final Answer: Option B

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  52. Q52.SSC CGL 2025

    Arvind started a business by investing ₹80,000. After 4 months, Bhavin joined with ₹1,20,000. At the end of 8 months from the start, Chandan joined with ₹1,60,000. If the total profit is ₹1,05,000 at the end of the year, find the share of Chandan.

    1. A.

      ₹26,500

    2. B.

      ₹26,000

    3. C.

      ₹26,200

    4. D.

      ₹26,250

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    1. Calculate effective investment (Capital × Months):

      • Arvind: 80,000 × 12 = 9,60,000

      • Bhavin: 1,20,000 × 8 = 9,60,000

      • Chandan: 1,60,000 × 4 = 6,40,000

    2. Profit Ratio: 9,60,000 : 9,60,000 : 6,40,000 = 3 : 3 : 2

    3. Total shares = 3 + 3 + 2 = 8 parts.

    4. Chandan's share = (2 / 8) × 1,05,000 = 26,250

    Final Answer: Option D

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  53. Q53.SSC CGL 2025

    A and B start a business. A invests ₹80,000 for 9 months, B invests ₹1,20,000 for 6 months. What is B's share of a ₹45,000 profit?

    1. A.

      ₹26,500

    2. B.

      ₹28,000

    3. C.

      ₹36,000

    4. D.

      ₹22,500

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    1. Ratio = (80,000 * 9) : (1,20,000 * 6) = 7,20,000 : 7,20,000 = 1:1.
    2. B's share = (1/2) * 45,000 = ₹22,500.

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  54. Q54.SSC CGL 2025

    What is the average of all integers between 100 and 250 that are exactly divisible by 11?

    1. A.

      176

    2. B.

      186

    3. C.

      196

    4. D.

      146

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    1. Multiples of 11 between 100 and 250: First is 110, last is 242. 2. Average = (110 + 242) / 2 = 352 / 2 = 176.

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  55. Q55.SSC CGL 2025

    The average of 15 numbers is 80. The average of the first 6 numbers is 72. The average of the next 6 numbers is 25% more than the average of the first 6 numbers. The 13th number is 8 more than the 15th number, and the 14th number is 10 less than the 15th number. What is the average of the 13th and 14th numbers?

    1. A.

      70.89

    2. B.

      85

    3. C.

      75.67

    4. D.

      80.65

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    1. Sum of 15 = 1200. Sum of first 6 = 432. Sum of next 6 = (72 * 1.25) * 6 = 540
    2. Sum of 13, 14, 15 = 1200 - (432 + 540) = 228
    3. 13th=x+8, 14th=x-10, 15th=x. (x+8) + (x-10) + x = 228 => 3x = 230 => x=76.67
    4. 13th=84.67, 14th=66.67. Average = 75.67

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  56. Q56.SSC CGL 2025

    A landlord bought a flat for ₹8,00,000. He wants to earn a 9% annual return on his investment after paying ₹2,000 per month for maintenance. What should be the monthly rent he charges?

    1. A.

      ₹7,000

    2. B.

      ₹7,500

    3. C.

      ₹8,000

    4. D.

      ₹8,500

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    1. Required Annual Return: 9% of ₹8,00,000 = ₹72,000. 2. Required Monthly Return: ₹72,000 / 12 = ₹6,000. 3. Monthly Maintenance Cost: ₹2,000. 4. Total Monthly Rent Needed: ₹6,000 (Target Return) + ₹2,000 (Maintenance) = ₹8,000. Final Answer: Option C

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  57. Q57.SSC CGL 2025

    An amount is said to double in 5 years with compound interest. How many years will it take for the amount to grow to 8 times its original value?

    1. A.

      15

    2. B.

      16

    3. C.

      17

    4. D.

      18

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    1. Double in 5 years means 2^1 = 2 times in 5 years. 2. 8 times is 2^3 times, so years = 5 * 3 = 15 years.

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  58. Q58.SSC CGL 2025

    A sum becomes ₹6,600 in 2 years and ₹7,920 in 3 years at compound interest. What is the original principal?

    1. A.

      ₹4,000.33

    2. B.

      ₹5,583.33

    3. C.

      ₹4,583.33

    4. D.

      ₹6,583.33

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    1. Principal * r = 7920/6600 = 1.2.
    2. P * (1.2)^2 = 6600 => P * 1.44 = 6600 => P = 4,583.33.

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  59. Q59.SSC CGL 2025

    Suman purchased 25 liters of milk at ₹45 per liter and another 15 liters of milk at ₹50 per liter. She combined both quantities and then sold the entire mixture at ₹48 per liter. What was her total profit or loss?

    1. A.

      Loss of ₹45

    2. B.

      Profit of ₹45

    3. C.

      Profit of ₹90

    4. D.

      Loss of ₹90

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    1. CP = (25*45) + (15*50) = 1125 + 750 = 1875. 2. SP = 40 * 48 = 1920. 3. Profit = 1920 - 1875 = 45.

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  60. Q60.SSC CGL 2025

    A toy manufacturer produced 1200 toy cars at a total cost of ₹90,000. He donated 200 cars to a charity event. For the rest, he announced a 10% discount on the market price of ₹120 per car. He also offered 2 toy cars free for every 8 toy cars purchased. If all 1200 toy cars were distributed, what is his overall gain or loss percentage?

    1. A.

      4% loss

    2. B.

      4% profit

    3. C.

      5% loss

    4. D.

      5% profit

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    1. CP = 90,000. Sold = 1000 cars. 8+2 deal means 1000/10 = 100 free. Total sold = 800 paid cars. 2. Price = 120 * 0.9 = 108. Revenue = 800 * 108 = 86,400. 3. Loss = 90,000 - 86,400 = 3,600. % Loss = (3,600/90,000)*100 = 4%.

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  61. Q61.SSC CGL 2025

    A retailer marks an air conditioner 80% above its cost price. He offers a first discount of 25% on the marked price. During a festive offer, an additional discount of 10% is applied on the already discounted price. If the final selling price is ₹15,552, what is the approximate cost price of the air conditioner?"

    1. A.

      ₹9,000

    2. B.

      ₹9,200

    3. C.

      ₹12,800

    4. D.

      ₹10,000

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    1. CP * 1.80 * 0.75 * 0.90 = 15,552. 2. CP * 1.215 = 15,552 => CP = 12,800.

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  62. Q62.SSC CGL 2025

    A 40-liter mixture contains juice and water in the ratio 5:3. How much water (in liters) must be added to this
    mixture to change the ratio of juice to water to 2:3?

    1. A.

      15.5 litres

    2. B.

      22.5 litres

    3. C.

      25 litres

    4. D.

      30 litres

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    1. 40L = 25J + 15W
    2. (25)/(15+x) = 2/3 => 75 = 30 + 2x => 2x = 45 => x = 22.5

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  63. Q63.SSC CGL 2025

    A is able to complete a task in 15 days, while B takes 20 days to finish the same task. If they collaborate and work together for 4 days, what fraction of the work will still remain?

    1. A.

      1/3

    2. B.

      7/15

    3. C.

      8/15

    4. D.

      4/9

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    1. (A+B)'s 1 day work = 1/15 + 1/20 = 7/60. 2. 4 days work = 4 * 7/60 = 28/60 = 7/15. 3. Remaining = 1 - 7/15 = 8/15.

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  64. Q64.SSC CGL 2025

    Two oils priced at ₹90 per kg and ₹150 per kg are blended and sold at ₹144 per kg, achieving a profit margin of 20%. What is the ratio of the two oils in the mixture?

    1. A.

      1 : 1

    2. B.

      2 : 1

    3. C.

      3 : 2

    4. D.

      4 : 1

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    1. SP = 144, Profit = 20%. CP = 144 / 1.2 = 120. 2. Alligation: (150-120) : (120-90) = 30:30 = 1:1.

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  65. Q65.SSC CGL 2025

    Three pipes, A, B, and C are capable of filling a tank in 6, 8, and 12 hours, respectively. When all three pipes are opened together, they operate for 2 hours before pipe C is closed. How much additional time will it take to completely fill the tank after that?

    1. A.

      6/7 hours

    2. B.

      1/7 hours

    3. C.

      3/7 hours

    4. D.

      4/7 hours

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    1. (1/6 + 1/8 + 1/12) = 9/24 = 3/8 per hr.
    2. In 2 hrs: 2 * 3/8 = 6/8 = 3/4. Remaining = 1/4.
    3. Pipe A+B = 1/6 + 1/8 = 7/24 per hr. Time = (1/4) / (7/24) = 6/7 hours.

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  66. Q66.SSC CGL 2025

    A bullet train covers a fixed distance in 30 minutes at an average speed of 240 km/h. Due to track maintenance, it needs to be diverted, increasing the distance by 20%. If the train needs to arrive at its destination on time (i.e., in 30 minutes), what should its new average speed be in km/h?

    1. A.

      280 km/h

    2. B.

      300 km/h

    3. C.

      288 km/h

    4. D.

      320 km/h

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    First, calculate the original distance covered by the train. Since speed is 240 km/h and time is 30 minutes (or 0.5 hours), the distance equals speed multiplied by time: 240 × 0.5 = 120 km. Next, account for the increased distance due to track maintenance. The new route is 20% longer than the original, so multiply 120 km by 1.20 to get a new distance of 144 km. The train must still arrive in the same timeframe, which is 30 minutes or 0.5 hours. To find the required new average speed, divide the new distance by the time: 144 km ÷ 0.5 h = 288 km/h. This matches Option C. Options A and B are incorrect because they underestimate the necessary speed increase required to cover the extra 24 km within the fixed half-hour window. Option D is too high, exceeding what is mathematically required.

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  67. Q67.SSC CGL 2025

    Two cars, X and Y, start from points 360 km apart and travel at constant speeds. If they move towards each
    other, they meet in 4 hours. If they move in the same direction, they meet in 12 hours. What is the speed of car X?
    (Assume X is the faster car).

    1. A.

      60 km/h

    2. B.

      75 km/h

    3. C.

      45 km/h

    4. D.

      90 km/h

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    1. Opposite: (X+Y) = 360/4 = 90. Same: (X-Y) = 360/12 = 30.
    2. 2X = 120 => X = 60 km/h.

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  68. Q68.SSC CGL 2025

    A circular pizza having a radius of 21 cm. If 75% of it is eaten, what is the area of pizza remaining?

    1. A.

      173.25 cm²

    2. B.

      346.5 cm²

    3. C.

      432.25 cm²

    4. D.

      115.5 cm²

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    1. Total Area = πr² = (22/7) * 21 * 21 = 22 * 3 * 21 = 1386 cm². 2. If 75% is eaten, 25% remains. 3. Remaining Area = 0.25 * 1386 = 346.5 cm².

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  69. Q69.SSC CGL 2025

    A ring-shaped disc has outer radius 10 cm and inner radius 7 cm. What is the approximate ratio of the ring's area to the whole outer circle?

    1. A.

      1:2

    2. B.

      2:3

    3. C.

      3:4

    4. D.

      4:5

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    1. Outer circle area = π(10)² = 100π. 2. Inner circle area = π(7)² = 49π. 3. Ring area = 100π - 49π = 51π. 4. Ratio of ring area to outer circle = 51π : 100π = 51:100.

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  70. Q70.SSC CGL 2025

    A bicycle wheel having a radius of 35 cm. What percentage of its circumference is covered in a quarter turn? (Use π=22/7)

    1. A.

      15%

    2. B.

      25%

    3. C.

      30%

    4. D.

      35%

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    1. A quarter turn is 90 degrees out of 360 degrees. 2. (90/360) * 100 = 25%.

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  71. Q71.SSC CGL 2025

    The line y = mx + 5 passes through (1,8). Find m.

    1. A.

      5

    2. B.

      4

    3. C.

      3

    4. D.

      2

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    1. Substitute x=1 and y=8 into y = mx + 5. 2. 8 = m(1) + 5. 3. 8 - 5 = m. 4. m = 3.

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  72. Q72.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word:
    PERFIDIOUS

    1. A.

      Honest

    2. B.

      Faithful

    3. C.

      Treacherous

    4. D.

      Loyal

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Perfidious means treacherous, faithless or deceitful. Therefore the synonym is treacherous.

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  73. Q73.SSC CGL 2025

    Choose the correct meaning of idiom:
    Hobson's choice

    1. A.

      A dilemma between two evils

    2. B.

      A free and fair decision

    3. C.

      No real choice at all

    4. D.

      A selection made under duress

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Hobson's choice means a situation where there is no real choice at all: one must accept the option offered or take nothing.

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  74. Q74.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
    Perfidious

    1. A.

      Betraying

    2. B.

      Faithless

    3. C.

      Loyal

    4. D.

      Treacherous

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Perfidious means treacherous or faithless. Its antonym is loyal.

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  75. Q75.SSC CGL 2025

    Identify the misspelled word

    1. A.

      Vicereine

    2. B.

      Floccinaucinihilipilification

    3. C.

      Defenestrate

    4. D.

      Quintessance

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    The misspelled word is 'Quintessance'; the correct spelling is 'Quintessence'.

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  76. Q76.SSC CGL 2025

    Spot the correct spelling of a CSF-shunt procedure.

    1. A.

      Ventriculoperitoneal

    2. B.

      Ventriculoperitonal

    3. C.

      Ventriculaperitoneal

    4. D.

      Ventriculoperetoneal

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    The correct spelling of the CSF-shunt procedure is 'Ventriculoperitoneal'.

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  77. Q77.SSC CGL 2025

    Choose the correct one-word substitute for:
    'An official reprimand or strong criticism'.

    1. A.

      Accusation

    2. B.

      Denunciation

    3. C.

      Censure

    4. D.

      Indictment

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    An official reprimand or strong criticism is called a censure.

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  78. Q78.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the correct option:
    The startup scaled so rapidly that its infrastructure could ____ keep pace.

    1. A.

      barely

    2. B.

      merely

    3. C.

      scarcely

    4. D.

      all but

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    The sentence means the startup's infrastructure almost could not keep pace, so 'barely' is the best fit.

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  79. Q79.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the correct option:
    Rare though the phenomenon is, it can occur ___ prolonged drought conditions.

    1. A.

      towards

    2. B.

      amid

    3. C.

      among

    4. D.

      under

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    The idiomatic phrase is 'under prolonged drought conditions'.

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  80. Q80.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the correct option:
    While the proposal appeared pragmatic on paper, its implementation proved ____ complicated than expected.

    1. A.

      less

    2. B.

      more

    3. C.

      much

    4. D.

      rather

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    The comparative structure requires 'more complicated than expected'.

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  81. Q81.SSC CGL 2025

    Find the part of the sentence that contains an error:
    That the report failed to address the root causes (1)/ of the community unrest were surprising (2)/ given the
    exhaustive data (3)/ compiled over several months. (4)

    1. A.

      (1)

    2. B.

      (2)

    3. C.

      (3)

    4. D.

      (4)

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    The subject of the clause is 'That the report failed to address the root causes', which is singular. Therefore 'were surprising' should be 'was surprising', so the error is in part 2.

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  82. Q82.SSC CGL 2025

    Find the part of the sentence that contains an error:
    What renders the draft legislation particularly contentious is not its proposed realignment of fiscal powers per se, (1)/ but that it presumes, without empirical substantiation, (2)/ a fiscal equivalence among states whose developmental baselines are (3)/ incommensurable by any normative metric. (4)

    1. A.

      (1)

    2. B.

      (2)

    3. C.

      (3)

    4. D.

      (4)

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    Concept: In a contrastive construction of the form 'is not X, but Y', the two elements X and Y introduced by 'not' and 'but' must be grammatically parallel -- both noun phrases, both clauses, or whatever single structure the first side sets up. Introducing a subordinating word on only one side (such as 'that') breaks that match.

    Application: Here, X is the noun phrase 'its proposed realignment of fiscal powers per se'. For 'is not X, but Y' to stay parallel, Y must also read as a noun phrase. Part (2), however, is 'but that it presumes, without empirical substantiation,' -- the word 'that' turns this segment into a dependent clause rather than a matching noun phrase, breaking the parallel structure the construction requires.

    Cross-check: The remaining parts hold their own grammatical ground:

    • Part (1), '...is not its proposed realignment of fiscal powers per se,', uses 'its proposed realignment of fiscal powers per se' as a single noun phrase functioning as the complement after 'is not'.

    • Part (3), 'a fiscal equivalence among states whose developmental baselines are', opens with the noun phrase 'a fiscal equivalence among states' and continues into the relative clause 'whose developmental baselines are', which completes in Part (4): 'whose' correctly links 'states' to 'developmental baselines', and the plural 'baselines' correctly takes the plural verb 'are'.

    • Part (4), 'incommensurable by any normative metric', is a grammatically sound predicate-adjective phrase that completes the sentence.

    Result: Part (2) is the only segment that disrupts the noun-phrase parallelism set up by 'is not ... but', which is why it is the part containing the error.

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  83. Q83.SSC CGL 2025

    Change the following from active to passive:
    They have been neglecting maintenance of the archives for years.

    1. A.

      Maintenance of the archives had been neglected by them for years.

    2. B.

      Maintenance of the archives is being neglected by them for years.

    3. C.

      Maintenance of the archives was being neglected by them for years.

    4. D.

      Maintenance of the archives has been being neglected by them for years.

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    The active sentence is in the present perfect continuous tense: 'have been neglecting'. Its passive form is 'Maintenance of the archives has been being neglected by them for years.'

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  84. Q84.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the sentence in which the highlighted word is used in a different meaning.
    Given sentence: The choir began the introit at the priest’s signal.

    1. A.

      The palace’s introit led visitors into the central courtyard.

    2. B.

      The introit was replaced by an organ improvisation.

    3. C.

      The missal included Latin text for the introit.

    4. D.

      The cantor rehearsed the Sunday introit.

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Concept

    One word form can carry more than one sense. In a "used in a different meaning" item, the given sentence fixes one reference sense, and the task is to find the sentence whose own cue words force a sense outside that reference. What decides the sense is the collocation each sentence supplies — what the word is said to do, or what it is said to belong to — not the general subject matter of the sentence.

    Application

    In the given sentence the cues are choir, priest and began: they place the word inside an act of worship, so introit there means the opening chant or piece of music with which a Christian service starts. Each option is now tested against that reference sense using only its own cue words.

    Cue words in the sentence

    Sense "introit" must carry there

    missal, Latin text

    the opening chant of the Mass, whose words the missal prints

    cantor, rehearsed, Sunday

    the opening chant sung at worship, prepared by the lead singer

    organ improvisation, replaced

    the opening music of the service, here swapped for organ playing

    palace, led visitors into the central courtyard

    a way in that people physically walk through

    Three of the sentences keep the worship sense: a chant can be printed in a missal, rehearsed by a cantor, and replaced by an organ piece. The palace sentence needs something a person can walk along to reach a courtyard, and a chant cannot lead anyone anywhere. So the meaning shifts only in The palace’s introit led visitors into the central courtyard.

    Cross-check

    • Merriam-Webster: introit — the first part of the traditional proper of the Mass; also a piece of music sung or played at the beginning of a worship service.

    • Cambridge: introit — the opening part of a Mass or other religious service, or those opening words set to music.

    • Historical dictionaries record a now-obsolete, non-liturgical sense: the Middle English Dictionary glosses introite as "entrance", and Blount’s Glossographia (1656) defines introit as "an entry, a place to enter by" — from Latin introitus, "a going in".

    • That older spatial sense is what the palace sentence needs, since a place people walk through cannot be a sung item; the modern liturgical sense recorded by the dictionaries above is what the other three sentences carry.

    Answer: the palace sentence, where introit denotes an entrance way rather than the opening chant of a service.

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  85. Q85.SSC CGL 2025

    Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure:
    It was being suggested by multiple sources that the operation had been compromised internally.

    1. A.

      Multiple sources suggested the operation was compromised internally.

    2. B.

      The operation was compromised, multiple sources suggested.

    3. C.

      The sources were suggesting an operation compromise.

    4. D.

      The operation had compromised multiple internal sources.

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    The passive sentence can be made active by making 'multiple sources' the subject: 'Multiple sources suggested the operation was compromised internally.'

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  86. Q86.SSC CGL 2025

    Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage:
    While education and wisdom are often conflated in colloquial discourse, a discerning mind perceives a
    fundamental divergence between the two. Education is the formal acquisition of knowledge, often measured
    through degrees, academic accolades, and proficiency in structured disciplines. It is delivered through
    systematic curricula, institutionalized assessment, and theoretical frameworks. However, wisdom transcends
    this rigidity; it is the judicious application of knowledge to real-life contexts, enriched by experience,
    introspection, and emotional intelligence. An individual may be extensively educated yet remain bereft of
    wisdom if they lack the discernment to apply their learning ethically and effectively. Conversely, many wise
    individuals—farmers, artisans, elders—may not possess formal education, but their decisions exhibit
    prudence and sagacity cultivated through lived realities. Thus, education equips the mind, but wisdom
    enriches the soul. In an era dominated by information overload and algorithmic thinking, the schism between
    the two has widened. Educational institutions often prioritize rote memorization and standardized testing over
    critical thinking and moral reasoning. Consequently, society produces individuals proficient in problem-solving but deficient in decision-making that requires empathy, patience, or foresight. Wisdom, being innately
    human, cannot be downloaded or fast-tracked; it is earned through trial, failure, reflection, and a nuanced
    understanding of human nature. Furthermore, while education is temporally bounded—ending with formal
    schooling or academic milestones—wisdom is a lifelong pursuit. It does not boast certificates but manifests in
    humility, ethical consistency, and the ability to navigate ambiguity with grace. Ultimately, the highest form of
    intelligence lies not merely in knowing what is right, but in consistently choosing to do it, especially when it is
    inconvenient.

    According to the passage, how is wisdom primarily acquired?

    1. A.

      Through textbooks

    2. B.

      Through emotional detachment

    3. C.

      Through experience and reflection

    4. D.

      Through algorithmic thinking

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    The passage states that wisdom is earned through trial, failure, reflection and lived experience. Thus it is primarily acquired through experience and reflection.

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  87. Q87.SSC CGL 2025

    Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage:
    While education and wisdom are often conflated in colloquial discourse, a discerning mind perceives a
    fundamental divergence between the two. Education is the formal acquisition of knowledge, often measured
    through degrees, academic accolades, and proficiency in structured disciplines. It is delivered through
    systematic curricula, institutionalized assessment, and theoretical frameworks. However, wisdom transcends
    this rigidity; it is the judicious application of knowledge to real-life contexts, enriched by experience,
    introspection, and emotional intelligence. An individual may be extensively educated yet remain bereft of
    wisdom if they lack the discernment to apply their learning ethically and effectively. Conversely, many wise
    individuals—farmers, artisans, elders—may not possess formal education, but their decisions exhibit
    prudence and sagacity cultivated through lived realities. Thus, education equips the mind, but wisdom
    enriches the soul. In an era dominated by information overload and algorithmic thinking, the schism between
    the two has widened. Educational institutions often prioritize rote memorization and standardized testing over
    critical thinking and moral reasoning. Consequently, society produces individuals proficient in problem-solving  but deficient in decision-making that requires empathy, patience, or foresight. Wisdom, being innately
    human, cannot be downloaded or fast-tracked; it is earned through trial, failure, reflection, and a nuanced
    understanding of human nature. Furthermore, while education is temporally bounded—ending with formal
    schooling or academic milestones—wisdom is a lifelong pursuit. It does not boast certificates but manifests in
    humility, ethical consistency, and the ability to navigate ambiguity with grace. Ultimately, the highest form of
    intelligence lies not merely in knowing what is right, but in consistently choosing to do it, especially when it is
    inconvenient.

    What does the author mean by "wisdom enriches the soul"?

    1. A.

      It enhances academic success

    2. B.

      It fosters deeper moral insight

    3. C.

      It improves verbal expression

    4. D.

      It sharpens mathematical skills

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    In the passage, wisdom enriches the soul by adding ethical judgment, humility and deeper moral insight beyond formal academic knowledge.

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  88. Q88.SSC CGL 2025

    Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage:
    While education and wisdom are often conflated in colloquial discourse, a discerning mind perceives a
    fundamental divergence between the two. Education is the formal acquisition of knowledge, often measured
    through degrees, academic accolades, and proficiency in structured disciplines. It is delivered through
    systematic curricula, institutionalized assessment, and theoretical frameworks. However, wisdom transcends
    this rigidity; it is the judicious application of knowledge to real-life contexts, enriched by experience,
    introspection, and emotional intelligence. An individual may be extensively educated yet remain bereft of
    wisdom if they lack the discernment to apply their learning ethically and effectively. Conversely, many wise
    individuals—farmers, artisans, elders—may not possess formal education, but their decisions exhibit
    prudence and sagacity cultivated through lived realities. Thus, education equips the mind, but wisdom
    enriches the soul. In an era dominated by information overload and algorithmic thinking, the schism between
    the two has widened. Educational institutions often prioritize rote memorization and standardized testing over
    critical thinking and moral reasoning. Consequently, society produces individuals proficient in problem-solving  but deficient in decision-making that requires empathy, patience, or foresight. Wisdom, being innately
    human, cannot be downloaded or fast-tracked; it is earned through trial, failure, reflection, and a nuanced
    understanding of human nature. Furthermore, while education is temporally bounded—ending with formal
    schooling or academic milestones—wisdom is a lifelong pursuit. It does not boast certificates but manifests in
    humility, ethical consistency, and the ability to navigate ambiguity with grace. Ultimately, the highest form of
    intelligence lies not merely in knowing what is right, but in consistently choosing to do it, especially when it is
    inconvenient.

    Who, according to the author, can be wise despite lacking formal education?

    1. A.

      Scientists

    2. B.

      School children

    3. C.

      Elders and artisans

    4. D.

      Technocrats

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    The passage says many wise individuals may lack formal education, and gives examples such as farmers, artisans and elders. Among the options, elders and artisans match this idea.

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  89. Q89.SSC CGL 2025

    Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage:
    While education and wisdom are often conflated in colloquial discourse, a discerning mind perceives a
    fundamental divergence between the two. Education is the formal acquisition of knowledge, often measured
    through degrees, academic accolades, and proficiency in structured disciplines. It is delivered through
    systematic curricula, institutionalized assessment, and theoretical frameworks. However, wisdom transcends
    this rigidity; it is the judicious application of knowledge to real-life contexts, enriched by experience,
    introspection, and emotional intelligence. An individual may be extensively educated yet remain bereft of
    wisdom if they lack the discernment to apply their learning ethically and effectively. Conversely, many wise
    individuals—farmers, artisans, elders—may not possess formal education, but their decisions exhibit
    prudence and sagacity cultivated through lived realities. Thus, education equips the mind, but wisdom
    enriches the soul. In an era dominated by information overload and algorithmic thinking, the schism between
    the two has widened. Educational institutions often prioritize rote memorization and standardized testing over
    critical thinking and moral reasoning. Consequently, society produces individuals proficient in problem-solving  but deficient in decision-making that requires empathy, patience, or foresight. Wisdom, being innately
    human, cannot be downloaded or fast-tracked; it is earned through trial, failure, reflection, and a nuanced
    understanding of human nature. Furthermore, while education is temporally bounded—ending with formal
    schooling or academic milestones—wisdom is a lifelong pursuit. It does not boast certificates but manifests in
    humility, ethical consistency, and the ability to navigate ambiguity with grace. Ultimately, the highest form of
    intelligence lies not merely in knowing what is right, but in consistently choosing to do it, especially when it is
    inconvenient.

    What is the central contrast drawn in the passage?

    1. A.

      Education vs. career

    2. B.

      Intelligence vs. memory

    3. C.

      Reading vs. writing

    4. D.

      Formal learning vs. applied wisdom

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    The central contrast in the passage is between formal education or formal learning and wisdom as applied, experience-based judgment.

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  90. Q90.SSC CGL 2025

    Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage:
    While education and wisdom are often conflated in colloquial discourse, a discerning mind perceives a
    fundamental divergence between the two. Education is the formal acquisition of knowledge, often measured
    through degrees, academic accolades, and proficiency in structured disciplines. It is delivered through
    systematic curricula, institutionalized assessment, and theoretical frameworks. However, wisdom transcends
    this rigidity; it is the judicious application of knowledge to real-life contexts, enriched by experience,
    introspection, and emotional intelligence. An individual may be extensively educated yet remain bereft of
    wisdom if they lack the discernment to apply their learning ethically and effectively. Conversely, many wise
    individuals—farmers, artisans, elders—may not possess formal education, but their decisions exhibit
    prudence and sagacity cultivated through lived realities. Thus, education equips the mind, but wisdom
    enriches the soul. In an era dominated by information overload and algorithmic thinking, the schism between
    the two has widened. Educational institutions often prioritize rote memorization and standardized testing over
    critical thinking and moral reasoning. Consequently, society produces individuals proficient in problem-solving  but deficient in decision-making that requires empathy, patience, or foresight. Wisdom, being innately
    human, cannot be downloaded or fast-tracked; it is earned through trial, failure, reflection, and a nuanced
    understanding of human nature. Furthermore, while education is temporally bounded—ending with formal
    schooling or academic milestones—wisdom is a lifelong pursuit. It does not boast certificates but manifests in
    humility, ethical consistency, and the ability to navigate ambiguity with grace. Ultimately, the highest form of
    intelligence lies not merely in knowing what is right, but in consistently choosing to do it, especially when it is
    inconvenient.

    According to the author, why has the gap between education and wisdom widened in recent times?

    1. A.

      Due to overuse of social media

    2. B.

      Because wisdom is no longer valued

    3. C.

      Because of rote learning and algorithmic methods

    4. D.

      Because people stop learning after school

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    The passage says the gap widened because institutions often prioritize rote memorization, standardized testing and algorithmic thinking over critical and moral reasoning.

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  91. Q91.SSC CGL 2025

    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence:
    She has the reputation to be a kind woman.

    1. A.

      to have kindness

    2. B.

      of being a kind woman

    3. C.

      of being the kind woman

    4. D.

      to be kind-hearted

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    The correct idiomatic expression is 'has the reputation of being a kind woman', not 'reputation to be'.

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  92. Q92.SSC CGL 2025

    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence
    The doctor advised him to avoid eating sweets and doing exercise regularly.

    1. A.

      avoiding sweets and doing regular exercise

    2. B.

      to avoid sweets and to exercises regularly

    3. C.

      to avoid eating sweets and to exercise regularly

    4. D.

      to not eat sweets and do exercises

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    The sentence needs parallel infinitives after 'advised him': 'to avoid eating sweets and to exercise regularly.'

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  93. Q93.SSC CGL 2025

    A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most
    accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech.

    He asked me, "Have you done your homework?"

    1. A.

      He asked me if I had done my homework.

    2. B.

      He asked me have I done my homework.

    3. C.

      He asked me whether I have done my homework.

    4. D.

      He asked me whether had I done my homework.

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    The yes/no question in direct speech becomes an indirect clause with 'if' and backshifted tense: 'He asked me if I had done my homework.'

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  94. Q94.SSC CGL 2025

    A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most
    accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech.

    He said that he would join the meeting after lunch.

    1. A.

      "I will join the meeting after lunch," he said.

    2. B.

      "I would join the meeting after lunch," he said.

    3. C.

      "I shall join the meeting after lunch," he said.

    4. D.

      "I can join the meeting after lunch," he said.

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    In direct speech, 'would' in reported speech goes back to 'will' when the speaker's original words are restored: "I will join the meeting after lunch," he said.

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  95. Q95.SSC CGL 2025

    Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage:
    1. A media strategy was framed based on outreach results.
    2. Demographic metrics were tracked from campaign dashboards.
    3. User interactions were collected across platforms.
    4. Analysts segmented users by age and behavior.

    1. A.

      3-2-4-1

    2. B.

      2-3-1-4

    3. C.

      3-1-4-2

    4. D.

      4-1-2-3

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    The logical process is: collect user interactions, track demographic metrics, segment users, then frame the media strategy. Hence the order is 3-2-4-1.

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  96. Q96.SSC CGL 2025

    Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph:
    1. It is a process that involves the systematic and objective investigation of a subject to discover new facts or to
    confirm existing ones.
    2. Research is a foundational pillar of academic and scientific progress.
    3. This can be either theoretical, aiming to expand knowledge, or applied, seeking to solve a practical problem.
    4. The findings of this investigation are then documented and peer-reviewed to ensure validity and credibility.

    1. A.

      2, 1, 3, 4

    2. B.

      1, 2, 4, 3

    3. C.

      4, 3, 2, 1

    4. D.

      3, 4, 1, 2

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Sentence 2 introduces research. Sentence 1 defines it, sentence 3 explains its theoretical/applied forms, and sentence 4 closes with documentation and peer review. Therefore the order is 2, 1, 3, 4.

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  97. Q97.SSC CGL 2025

    In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
    Liberty : Autonomy :: Equality : ?

    1. A.

      Legitimacy

    2. B.

      Neutrality

    3. C.

      Fairness

    4. D.

      Diversity

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Liberty is closely related to autonomy; similarly, equality is closely related to fairness.

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  98. Q98.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
    BGL, GLQ, LQV, QVA, ?

    1. A.

      ZAS

    2. B.

      OKS

    3. C.

      VAF

    4. D.

      AVG

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    1. Check the progression of the first letters: B(2), G(7), L(12), Q(17). Pattern is +5. Next is 17+5 = 22 (V).
    2. Check the progression of the second letters: G(7), L(12), Q(17), V(22). Pattern is +5. Next is 22+5 = 27, which wraps around to 1 (A).
    3. Check the progression of the third letters: L(12), Q(17), V(22), A(1). Pattern is +5. Next is 1+5 = 6 (F).
    4. The correct cluster is VAF.

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  99. Q99.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
    DAG, FCI, ?, JGM, LIO

    1. A.

      GDJ

    2. B.

      IFL

    3. C.

      HKE

    4. D.

      HEK

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    1. Analyze the first letters of each cluster: D, F, ?, J, L. The pattern is +2 (D+2=F, F+2=H, H+2=J). The first letter is H. 2. Analyze the second letters: A, C, ?, G, I. The pattern is +2 (A+2=C, C+2=E, E+2=G). The second letter is E. 3. Analyze the third letters: G, I, ?, M, O. The pattern is +2 (G+2=I, I+2=K, K+2=M). The third letter is K. 4. Combine the letters to form the missing cluster: HEK.

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  100. Q100.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following alternatives will replace the question mark?
    Atom, Molecule, Cell, ?

    1. A.

      Tissue

    2. B.

      Proton

    3. C.

      System

    4. D.

      Gene

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    The sequence moves from smaller biological/chemical units to larger organized structures: atom, molecule, cell, tissue.

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  101. Q101.SSC CGL 2025

    Complete the series: _______, 150, 183, 219, 258

    1. A.

      120

    2. B.

      148

    3. C.

      361

    4. D.

      247

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    1. Calculate the differences between the given consecutive numbers: 183 - 150 = 33; 219 - 183 = 36; 258 - 219 = 39.
    2. Observe the pattern in the differences: +33, +36, +39. The differences are increasing by 3.
    3. Working backward, the difference before +33 must be +30.
    4. Subtract 30 from 150 to find the missing first term: 150 - 30 = 120.

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  102. Q102.SSC CGL 2025

    What will come at the place of question mark? 2, 12, 30, 56, 90, ?

    1. A.

      132

    2. B.

      140

    3. C.

      142

    4. D.

      150

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    1. Method 1 (Differences): Find differences between terms: 10, 18, 26, 34.
    2. Find the double difference: 18-10=8; 26-18=8; 34-26=8. The difference increases by 8 each time.
    3. Next difference: 34 + 8 = 42.
    4. Next term: 90 + 42 = 132.
    5. (Alternative Method 2: The pattern is 1x2=2, 3x4=12, 5x6=30, 7x8=56, 9x10=90. The next is 11x12 = 132).

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  103. Q103.SSC CGL 2025

    Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows.
    Statement: Most farmers in the region depend on monsoon rains for irrigation.
    Conclusions:
    I. The region does not have proper irrigation infrastructure.
    II. A weak monsoon may reduce agricultural output.

    1. A.

      Only Conclusion I follows

    2. B.

      Only Conclusion II follows

    3. C.

      Both I and II follow

    4. D.

      Neither I nor II follows

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    1. Analyze the Statement: It explicitly links agricultural irrigation to monsoon rains. 2. Evaluate Conclusion I: While dependence on rain often implies poor infrastructure, the statement doesn't state this as a fact. It's an assumption. 3. Evaluate Conclusion II: Since irrigation depends on the monsoon, a weak monsoon directly means less water for crops, logically reducing output. This is a direct consequence. 4. Therefore, only Conclusion II strictly follows.

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  104. Q104.SSC CGL 2025

    Instruction: Identify the assumptions that must hold for the statement to be valid, then choose the correct option.
    Statement: The discovery of exoplanets in habitable zones around distant stars has provided exciting prospects for the search for extraterrestrial life, yet the vast distances and technological limitations pose significant obstacles to direct exploration.
    Assumptions:
    I. Exoplanets located in habitable zones may have the potential to support life.
    II. Current technology is insufficient to directly explore exoplanets in habitable zones.
    III. Direct exploration of exoplanets will be unnecessary if we detect signs of life remotely.

    1. A.

      Only I and II are implicit

    2. B.

      ) Only II and III are implicit

    3. C.

      Only I is implicit

    4. D.

      All assumptions are implicit

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    The statement assumes that habitable-zone exoplanets may support life and that current technology cannot directly explore them. It does not require the claim that remote detection would make direct exploration unnecessary.

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  105. Q105.SSC CGL 2025

    How many meaningful four-letter English words can be formed using the first, second, third, and sixth letters of the word "PROVIDE" (when counted from left to right), using each letter only once in each word?

    1. A.

      One

    2. B.

      Three

    3. C.

      Two

    4. D.

      Five

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    In a letter-position word-formation question, first identify the exact letters sitting at the stated positions when the word is read strictly left to right, then check every rearrangement of only those letters against real dictionary words — a word counts only if all its letters come from that set, each used exactly once.

    1. Write out PROVIDE with each letter numbered from the left: P(1), R(2), O(3), V(4), I(5), D(6), E(7).

    2. The question asks for the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 6th letters, which are P, R, O, and D.

    3. Rearrange P, R, O, D (each used once) and check every ordering against a dictionary: DROP (to fall or let fall), PROD (to poke or urge into action), and DORP (a small village or hamlet) are all standard English words.

    4. No other arrangement of these four letters forms a recognised English word.

    Counting the valid words found — DROP, PROD, DORP — gives a total of three meaningful four-letter words.

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  106. Q106.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following addresses are identical to each other:
    1. Rajeev Chauhan 3/5, Lotus Enclave, Kanpur, 208012
    2. Rajeev Chauhan 3-5, Lotus Enclave, Kanpur, 208012
    3. Rajeev Chauhan 3-5, Lotus Enclave, Kanpur, 208012
    4. Rajeev Chauhan 3-5, Lotus Enclave, Kanpur, 208002

    1. A.

      1 and 2

    2. B.

      2 and 3

    3. C.

      2 and 4

    4. D.

      3 and 4

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    1. Address 2: "Rajeev Chauhan 3-5, Lotus Enclave, Kanpur, 208012". 2. Address 3: "Rajeev Chauhan 3-5, Lotus Enclave, Kanpur, 208012". 3. They match exactly.

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  107. Q107.SSC CGL 2025

    Each of the letters in the word STAMINA is arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter that is first from the left and the one that is fourth from the right in the new letter-cluster formed?

    1. A.

      11

    2. B.

      12

    3. C.

      13

    4. D.

      14

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    1. Word is STAMINA. Alphabetical order: A, A, I, M, N, S, T. 2. 1st from left is A. 3. 4th from right is M (S(1), N(2), M(3), I(4) - counting from right: T, S, N, M). 4. Letters between A and M are B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L (Total 11).

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  108. Q108.SSC CGL 2025

    Find the best option that best completes the analogy.
    NPR : OQS :: XYZ : ?

    1. A.

      YZA

    2. B.

      ZAB

    3. C.

      YAC

    4. D.

      YAZ

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    1. Pattern: N(+1)=O, P(+1)=Q, R(+1)=S. 2. Apply to XYZ: X(+1)=Y, Y(+1)=Z, Z(+1)=A.

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  109. Q109.SSC CGL 2025

    In a row of 50 books, Book A is 15th from left and Book B is 20th from right. How many books lie between them?

    1. A.

      17

    2. B.

      15

    3. C.

      12

    4. D.

      10

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    1. Total = 50. A (15th from left), B (20th from right).
    2. Rank of B from left = 50 - 20 + 1 = 31st.
    3. Between = (31 - 15) - 1 = 15.

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  110. Q110.SSC CGL 2025

    In each of the following questions, the second word is formed by rearranging the letters of the first word according to a specific pattern. Identify that pattern and apply the same to the third word to find the correct answer from the given alternatives.
    NUMERAL : UEALRMN :: ALGEBRA : ?

    1. A.

      LRBAGEA

    2. B.

      BARLAGE

    3. C.

      LERAGBA

    4. D.

      LERABGA

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    1. NUMERAL -> UEALRMN: (N, U) -> (U, E). Pattern involves specific group swaps. 2. Apply pattern to ALGEBRA -> LERABGA.

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  111. Q111.SSC CGL 2025

    Find the odd one out from the given alternatives:

    1. A.

      TDS

    2. B.

      GST

    3. C.

      VAT

    4. D.

      DNA

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    TDS, GST, and VAT are tax-related terms. DNA is a biological term, so it is the odd one out.

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  112. Q112.SSC CGL 2025

    If A is the son of B, and B is the brother of C, how is C related to A?

    1. A.

      Father

    2. B.

      Uncle

    3. C.

      Brother

    4. D.

      Cousin

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    A is son of B.
    B is brother of C.
    So, C is brother of A’s parent.

    Hence, C is A’s Uncle.

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  113. Q113.SSC CGL 2025

    One number is not like the others: 1331, 2197, 3375, 4096

    1. A.

      1331

    2. B.

      3375

    3. C.

      4096

    4. D.

      2197

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Write each number as a cube

    • 1331 = 113 -> cube of an odd number.

    • 2197 = 133 -> cube of an odd number.

    • 3375 = 153 -> cube of an odd number.

    • 4096 = 163 -> cube of an even number.

    Pattern

    The first three numbers are cubes of odd numbers, while 4096 is the cube of an even number.

    Final answer: 4096.

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  114. Q114.SSC CGL 2025

    Find the number that breaks the pattern: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 40, 58

    1. A.

      10

    2. B.

      17

    3. C.

      40

    4. D.

      26

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Series:
    2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 40, 58

    Pattern should be:
    +3, +5, +7, +9, +11, +13

    2 + 3 = 5
    5 + 5 = 10
    10 + 7 = 17
    17 + 9 = 26

    So pattern breaks at 26 onward.
    But among given options, 40 is considered incorrect in continuation.

    Hence, answer = 40.

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  115. Q115.SSC CGL 2025

    In a certain code language, each letter is assigned a unique digit. Based on the given codes for specific words, determine the code for the target word using the same logic. If MOUSE is coded as 45291 and RAT as 786, how is STORE coded?

    1. A.

      96571

    2. B.

      97653

    3. C.

      98345

    4. D.

      96278

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    From MOUSE = 45291
    M=4, O=5, U=2, S=9, E=1

    From RAT = 786
    R=7, A=8, T=6

    STORE:
    S = 9
    T = 6
    O = 5
    R = 7
    E = 1

    Hence, STORE = 96571.

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  116. Q116.SSC CGL 2025

    If 7 $ 3 = 58 and 6 $ 2 = 40, what is 5 $ 1?

    1. A.

      26

    2. B.

      24

    3. C.

      28

    4. D.

      22

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    1. Analyze the first equation: 7 $ 3 = 58. The underlying pattern is squaring both numbers and adding them: 7² + 3² = 49 + 9 = 58. 2. Verify with the second equation: 6 $ 2 = 40. The pattern holds: 6² + 2² = 36 + 4 = 40. 3. Apply the confirmed pattern to the target equation: 5 $ 1 = 5² + 1². 4. Calculate the final result: 25 + 1 = 26. Final Answer: Option A

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  117. Q117.SSC CGL 2025

    Pointing to a girl, a woman says, 'She is the daughter of my mother's only daughter.' How is the girl related
    to the woman?

    1. A.

      Daughter

    2. B.

      Daughter-in-law

    3. C.

      Cousin

    4. D.

      Sister

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    To solve this relationship puzzle, let's break down the statement step-by-step:

    Logical Breakdown
    The Speaker: A woman.

    The Phrase: "my mother's only daughter."

    The woman's mother has only one daughter. Since the speaker is a woman and is the daughter of her mother, the speaker herself must be that "only daughter."

    The Identification: "She [the girl] is the daughter of [my mother's only daughter]."

    Substituting our finding from above: "She [the girl] is the daughter of [me (the speaker)]."

    Conclusion
    Since the girl is the daughter of the woman speaking, the girl is the woman's daughter. This corresponds to Option 1.

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  118. Q118.SSC CGL 2025

    A woman says, "This man's son's sister is my daughter." How is the woman related to the man?

    1. A.

      Wife

    2. B.

      Sister

    3. C.

      Mother

    4. D.

      Daughter-in-law

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    1. Break down the descriptive phrase: "This man's son's sister". 2. The "son's sister" is simply another way of saying the man's "daughter". 3. Substitute this back into the quote: "This man's daughter is my daughter." 4. If the man's daughter is also the speaking woman's daughter, it means they are the parents of the child, making the woman his wife. Final Answer: Option A

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  119. Q119.SSC CGL 2025

    Two numbers are in ratio 7:9, and their sum is 128. Find the numbers.

    1. A.

      49, 79

    2. B.

      56, 72

    3. C.

      62, 66

    4. D.

      70, 58

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    1. Let the two numbers be represented as 7x and 9x. 2. Set up the equation based on their sum: 7x + 9x = 128. 3. Solve for x: 16x = 128, which means x = 8. 4. Calculate the actual numbers: 7 * 8 = 56, and 9 * 8 = 72. Final Answer: Option B

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  120. Q120.SSC CGL 2025

    If 16+11=A and 1/9=B, and A % B=(A×B)-1, then what is A % B?

    1. A.

      0

    2. B.

      -3

    3. C.

      2

    4. D.

      5

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    1. First, find the value of variable A: A = 16 + 11 = 27. 2. Identify the value of variable B: B = 1/9. 3. Substitute the values of A and B into the given equation: A % B = (A × B) - 1. 4. Calculate the expression: (27 × 1/9) - 1 = 3 - 1 = 2. Final Answer: Option C

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  121. Q121.SSC CGL 2025

    If the sum of 28 and 22 is multiplied by 8, what is the result?

    1. A.

      384

    2. B.

      400

    3. C.

      415

    4. D.

      416

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    1. First, calculate the sum of the two numbers inside the parentheses: 28 + 22 = 50. 2. Next, multiply this sum by the given multiplier: 50 × 8 = 400. Final Answer: Option B

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  122. Q122.SSC CGL 2025

    Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:

    Assertion (A): Humayun's Tomb was the first major Mughal garden tomb and directly inspired the design of the
    Taj Mahal.
    Reason (R): It introduced the charbagh garden layout and double-domed mausoleum style that became
    characteristic of later Mughal architecture.

    1. A.

      Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

    2. B.

      Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

    3. C.

      A is true, but R is false.

    4. D.

      A is false, but R is true.

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Humayun's Tomb was an early major Mughal garden tomb and influenced later Mughal architecture including the Taj Mahal. Its charbagh layout and double-dome style explain that influence.

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  123. Q123.SSC CGL 2025

    Which ancient ruler's administration is noted for its highly centralized structure?

    1. A.

      Harshavardhana

    2. B.

      Samudragupta

    3. C.

      Chandragupta Maurya

    4. D.

      Pulakeshin II

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    The Mauryan administration under Chandragupta Maurya is noted for a highly centralized structure.

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  124. Q124.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following correctly reflects the evolution of Indian classical music?

    1. A.

      Jatis evolved from ragas as per ancient texts

    2. B.

      72-mela system was given by Bharata in 13th century

    3. C.

      Folk music originally used mela and grama scales

    4. D.

      Ragas evolved from jatis; 72-mela was by Venkatamakhi

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    In Indian classical music history, ragas evolved from jatis, and the 72-mela system is associated with Venkatamakhi.

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  125. Q125.SSC CGL 2025

    Consider the following statements about the phases of long jump: 1) The athlete attains maximum
    momentum by running on the runway before take-off. 2) During take-off, the athlete pushes off with the weaker
    foot to maintain balance. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. A.

      Only 1 is Correct

    2. B.

      Only 2 is Correct

    3. C.

      1 and 2 are correct

    4. D.

      Neither 1 nor 2 are Correct

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    In long jump, the athlete builds maximum momentum on the runway before take-off. The take-off is normally from the preferred or stronger take-off foot, not necessarily the weaker foot.

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  126. Q126.SSC CGL 2025

    Mary Kom's most recent international gold medal was won at which tournament?

    1. A.

      Asian Games, Hangzhou

    2. B.

      President's Cup, Indonesia

    3. C.

      Commonwealth Games, Birmingham

    4. D.

      Olympic Games, Tokyo

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    For a “most recent achievement” question, compare the calendar year of every listed event against the person's actual participation and result record — a later-dated event does not add a new medal unless the person actually competed there and won.

    Tournament

    Year

    Mary Kom's outcome

    President's Cup, Indonesia

    2019

    Won gold in the 51 kg category

    Olympic Games, Tokyo

    2021

    Eliminated in the round of 16; no medal

    Commonwealth Games, Birmingham

    2022

    Withdrew after an injury during the selection trials; did not compete

    Asian Games, Hangzhou

    2023

    Not part of India's boxing contingent; did not compete

    • Although Tokyo (2021), Birmingham (2022), and Hangzhou (2023) all fall after 2019, none produced a gold medal for her: no medal at the Olympics, no participation at the Commonwealth Games due to injury, and no place in the Asian Games squad.

    • The 2019 President's Cup gold therefore remains her most recent gold at the international level.

    Hence, the correct answer is the tournament where she won gold — President's Cup, Indonesia.

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  127. Q127.SSC CGL 2025

    The Regulating Act of 1773 primarily introduced changes in the Company's administration in which two
    distinct areas?

    1. A.

      Company's Judicial system and revenue collection.

    2. B.

      Company's Military strategy and trade regulations.

    3. C.

      Company's constitution at home and territorial control in India.

    4. D.

      Company's relations with princely states and foreign policy.

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    The Regulating Act of 1773 reorganized the Company's constitution at home and established tighter control over its territorial administration in India.

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  128. Q128.SSC CGL 2025

    Consider the following statements regarding India's water-sharing treaties with its neighbours:
    1) The Mahakali Treaty signed with Nepal in 1996 includes provisions for integrated development of the Mahakali
    River and the Pancheshwar Project.
    2) The Ganga Water Treaty signed with Bangladesh in 1996 allows for the sharing of Ganga waters at Farakka
    throughout the entire year.
    Which of the statements above is/are correct?

    1. A.

      Only 1 is Correct

    2. B.

      Only 2 is Correct

    3. C.

      Both 1 and 2 are Correct

    4. D.

      Neither 1 nor 2 are Correct

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    The Mahakali Treaty with Nepal was signed in 1996 and includes integrated development of the Mahakali River and the Pancheshwar Project. The Ganga Water Treaty with Bangladesh concerns Farakka sharing mainly for the dry-season schedule, not the entire year as stated here.

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  129. Q129.SSC CGL 2025

    Fill in the blank:
    Under the SLKIC vertical of Khelo India, ____ Kendriya Vidyalayas have been adopted in partnership with KVS.

    1. A.

      3

    2. B.

      4

    3. C.

      5

    4. D.

      6

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    Khelo India, the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports' flagship sports development scheme, is organised into verticals, and each vertical funds one specific kind of intervention. The State Level Khelo India Centre (SLKIC) vertical creates state-level centres where selected athletes receive residential sports training alongside their regular schooling. A vertical of this kind is delivered by adopting existing institutions and their infrastructure through partnership, not by building new campuses, so the number of institutions adopted is a fixed, officially notified list — a figure to be read off the notification rather than estimated.

    Applying this to the KVS partnership: under the SLKIC vertical the Ministry tied up with the Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan, and the following Kendriya Vidyalayas were adopted as SLKIC centres —

    • Kendriya Vidyalaya, Gwalior (Madhya Pradesh)

    • Kendriya Vidyalaya, Ghaziabad (Uttar Pradesh)

    • Kendriya Vidyalaya, Delhi Cantt. (Delhi)

    • Kendriya Vidyalaya, Sidhi (Madhya Pradesh)

    Cross-check against the scheme's own enrolment data: 90 students — 46 boys and 44 girls — have been admitted across these adopted Kendriya Vidyalayas, and the government bears their lodging, boarding, education expenses, competition exposure, sports training and equipment. Note also that the SLKIC vertical as a whole supports 3,865 athletes (2,465 boys and 1,400 girls) across 67 SAI training centres; the Kendriya Vidyalaya adoptions are a separately named component within that vertical, so the figure asked for here is the size of the notified KVS list, not the training-centre total.

    Counting the notified list of adopted Kendriya Vidyalayas therefore gives 4, so 4 Kendriya Vidyalayas have been adopted under the SLKIC vertical in partnership with KVS.

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  130. Q130.SSC CGL 2025

    Consider the following statements about "The Adventures of Kakababu, Volume 1" by Sunil Gangopadhyaya:
    1) A pioneering Bengali adventure novel featuring detective Kakababu with mystery and cultural themes.
    2) A political satire on post-independence Indian governance.
    3) An autobiography of the author's freedom fighter experiences in Bengal. Which of the above statements is/are
    correct?

    1. A.

      Only statement 1 is correct

    2. B.

      Only statement 2 is correct

    3. C.

      Statements 2 and 3 are correct

    4. D.

      1, 2 and 3 are correct

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    The Adventures of Kakababu is a Bengali adventure series featuring Kakababu and mystery/adventure themes. The political satire and autobiography statements do not fit.

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  131. Q131.SSC CGL 2025

    Which Indian political leader addressed a special session in 2025 on "Environment, COP-30, and Global Health"?

    1. A.

      Piyush Goyal

    2. B.

      Hardeep Puri

    3. C.

      Narendra Modi

    4. D.

      S. Jaishankar

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Concept: A multilateral summit holds its plenary sessions at the level of Heads of State or Heads of Government, while ministers lead their country in the parallel ministerial-track meetings that match their own portfolio. That convention narrows down who is likely to speak in a named plenary session, but it does not settle the question by itself, because a country may designate another representative. The speaker for a specific session is therefore established from the official record of that event — the host’s published programme and the speaking government’s own release.

    Application: "Environment, COP-30, and Global Health" was the title of a plenary session of the 17th BRICS Summit, hosted by Brazil at Rio de Janeiro on 6-7 July 2025. The BRICS Brasil programme lists that session on 7 July 2025, and the Prime Minister’s Office record of the Indian statement delivered in it names Prime Minister Narendra Modi as the speaker. He spoke there on climate finance, sustainable development and cooperation on global health.

    Cross-check: The three other names are Union Ministers, and no official record of that summit places any of them as the speaker in that session:

    • Piyush Goyal — Union Minister of Commerce and Industry, whose BRICS engagements run through the trade ministers’ track.

    • Hardeep Puri — Union Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas, whose BRICS engagements run through the energy ministers’ track.

    • S. Jaishankar — Union Minister of External Affairs, who was part of the delegation at Rio; the foreign ministers’ track is separate from the leaders’ plenary.

    Answer: Narendra Modi addressed the session.

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  132. Q132.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following types of landslides involves backward rotation of the slipping material?

    1. A.

      Rockslide

    2. B.

      Rock fall

    3. C.

      Slump

    4. D.

      Debris fall

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    A slump is a type of landslide in which material moves downward along a curved surface and rotates backward.

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  133. Q133.SSC CGL 2025

    What is meant by population density?

    1. A.

      Population per household

    2. B.

      People per square kilometre

    3. C.

      People per region

    4. D.

      People per district

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    Population density means the number of people living per unit area, commonly expressed as people per square kilometre.

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  134. Q134.SSC CGL 2025

    Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Choose the correct option:

    Assertion (A): Population explosion occurs when death rates decline rapidly but birth rates remain high.
    Reason (R): Societal reproductive behavior changes instantly with improvements in healthcare.

    1. A.

      Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

    2. B.

      Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation

    3. C.

      A is true, but R is false

    4. D.

      A is false, but R is true

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Population explosion occurs when death rates fall rapidly but birth rates remain high. Reproductive behaviour does not change instantly with healthcare improvement, so the reason is false.

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  135. Q135.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following best reflects the fundamental objective of applying generative design in aerospace
    systems engineering?

    1. A.

      Facilitating seamless integration of multi-payload platforms in shared bus structures

    2. B.

      Optimizing mechanical configurations for minimum mass and maximum structural resilience

    3. C.

      Enhancing life-support redundancies to meet crew safety protocols in deep-space missions

    4. D.

      Designing adaptive thrust mechanisms to dynamically control orbital corrections

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    In aerospace systems engineering, generative design is mainly used to optimize mechanical structures for low mass while maintaining strength and resilience.

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  136. Q136.SSC CGL 2025

    The function of lysosomes in cells is:

    1. A.

      Protein synthesis

    2. B.

      Intracellular digestion

    3. C.

      Energy production

    4. D.

      Genetic information storage

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes and perform intracellular digestion, helping break down waste material and worn-out cell parts.

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  137. Q137.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following statements regarding Article 270 are correct?
    1) Article 270 governs the sharing of taxes between the Union and States, including proceeds from GST.
    2) After the 101st Constitutional Amendment, Article 270 includes provisions for distributing revenue from Union
    taxes and GST.
    3) The GST Compensation Cess is also shared between the Union and States under Article 270.

    1. A.

      1 and 3 only

    2. B.

      1 Only

    3. C.

      1 & 2 only

    4. D.

      2 & 3 only

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Article 270 deals with distribution of Union taxes between the Union and States, and after the 101st Amendment it includes GST-related distribution provisions. GST Compensation Cess is not shared under Article 270 in the same way. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.

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  138. Q138.SSC CGL 2025

    If Earth's radius were reduced by 1% while its mass remained unchanged, what would be the effect on the
    gravitational acceleration at its surface?

    1. A.

      Increase by approximately 1%

    2. B.

      Decrease by approximately 2%

    3. C.

      Increase by approximately 2%

    4. D.

      Decrease by approximately 1%

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Surface gravitational acceleration is g = GM/R^2. If Earth's radius becomes 0.99R while mass is unchanged, g becomes g/(0.99)^2, which is about 2% higher.

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  139. Q139.SSC CGL 2025

    Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), what is the maximum period for which a person can be held in police custody in total, even if remanded periodically by a magistrate?

    1. A.

      30 days

    2. B.

      60 days

    3. C.

      90 days

    4. D.

      15 days

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    Concept

    Detention during an investigation runs on two independent clocks. One clock caps the total time an accused may be detained while the investigation continues, after which the right to default bail arises. The other caps how much of that time may be spent in the custody of the investigating police rather than in jail. The second clock is an aggregate ceiling: it counts every remand order together, so repeated extensions divide the same allowance instead of adding to it.

    Applying it to this question

    1. Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 governs detention pending investigation once the twenty-four hours allowed by Section 58 have run out and the investigation is still incomplete.

    2. Section 187(2) empowers a Magistrate to authorise detention in the custody of the police for a term not exceeding fifteen days in the whole.

    3. What the BNSS changed is when those days may be taken, not how many there are: they may now be availed in whole or in parts at any time during the initial forty days (where the total detention limit is ninety days) or sixty days (where that limit is sixty days). Under Section 167 of the earlier Code of Criminal Procedure the same fifteen days had to fall inside the first fifteen days of remand.

    4. Because the allowance is fixed "in the whole", periodic remand orders by the Magistrate split those fifteen days between them; they cannot extend the total. The maximum aggregate police custody is therefore fifteen days.

    Cross-check: what the other periods measure

    Period

    What Section 187 of the BNSS attaches it to

    15 days

    Aggregate custody with the police, counted across all remand orders together

    40 or 60 days

    The window inside which those police-custody days may be availed, in whole or in parts

    60 days

    Total detention pending investigation before default bail, for offences outside the grave category

    90 days

    Total detention pending investigation before default bail, for offences punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment of not less than ten years

    Thirty days is not a period that Section 187 works with; a thirty-day police-custody power belongs to special legislation such as the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act. The answer is fifteen days.

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  140. Q140.SSC CGL 2025

    What is the age range for farmers to enrol in the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY)?

    1. A.

      18-30 years

    2. B.

      18-40 years

    3. C.

      21-45 years

    4. D.

      25-50 years

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana is for eligible small and marginal farmers in the age group of 18 to 40 years.

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  141. Q141.SSC CGL 2025

    Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:

    Assertion (A): UDAN Scheme improves regional air connectivity.
    Reason (R): It provides financial viability gap funding to airlines.

    1. A.

      Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

    2. B.

      Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

    3. C.

      A is true, but R is false

    4. D.

      A is false, but R is true

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    UDAN improves regional air connectivity by making routes viable through mechanisms such as viability gap funding for airlines. Therefore both A and R are true, and R explains A.

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  142. Q142.SSC CGL 2025

    According to the Global Cities Index 2025 by Oxford Economics, which two cities retained their top positions?

    1. A.

      Tokyo and Beijing

    2. B.

      London and New York

    3. C.

      Paris and Rome

    4. D.

      Berlin and Moscow

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    The Global Cities Index is Oxford Economics' annual composite ranking of the world's 1,000 largest cities. A city's overall rank is not a single measurement but an aggregate score built from five weighted pillars:

    • Economics

    • Human Capital

    • Quality of Life

    • Environment

    • Governance

    Because the ranking is re-computed every year, a city is said to have “retained its top position” when it holds the same leading overall rank in two consecutive editions.

    Applying that to the 2025 edition, released by Oxford Economics in May 2025: New York holds the 1st overall rank and London the 2nd. Both cities occupied these very same two ranks in the 2024 edition, so Oxford Economics reported that they led the index for a second consecutive year. The two cities that retained their top positions are therefore London and New York.

    • Paris is placed 3rd in the 2025 edition — the highest-ranked city below the leading pair.

    • Tokyo is placed 9th and Berlin 29th, both inside the top 30 but well below the leading ranks.

    • Rome is placed 111th, Beijing 152nd and Moscow 317th, far outside the leading ranks.

    Cross-checking the ranks confirms that only one pair of cities occupies the first and second overall positions in the 2025 index: London and New York.

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  143. Q143.SSC CGL 2025

    Which of the following statements about light industries is correct?

    1. A.

      They process heavy ores and minerals.

    2. B.

      They produce large-scale industrial machinery.

    3. C.

      They require bulky and heavy raw materials.

    4. D.

      Use light materials to make consumer goods

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    Light industries use comparatively light raw materials to produce consumer goods, unlike heavy industries that process bulky raw materials or heavy machinery.

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  144. Q144.SSC CGL 2025

    Schedule VII of the Constitution contains _______.

    1. A.

      Election guidelines

    2. B.

      Three legislative lists

    3. C.

      Emergency powers

    4. D.

      Judicial provisions

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    Schedule VII of the Constitution contains the three legislative lists: Union List, State List and Concurrent List.

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  145. Q145.SSC CGL 2025

    A coastal city implements a plan to build sea walls and elevate buildings in response to rising sea levels.
    This action primarily falls under which category of climate change response?

    1. A.

      Climate Change Mitigation.

    2. B.

      Carbon Sequestration.

    3. C.

      Geoengineering

    4. D.

      Climate Change Adaptation.

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    Building sea walls and elevating buildings are adjustments to reduce harm from rising sea levels. That is climate change adaptation, not mitigation or carbon sequestration.

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  146. Q146.SSC CGL 2025

    What specific physical quantity ensures a satellite maintains its orbit without continuous propulsion?

    1. A.

      Mass

    2. B.

      Gravitational pull

    3. C.

      Orbital velocity

    4. D.

      Atmospheric drag

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    A satellite remains in orbit because it has the required orbital velocity, which balances gravitational pull by continuously making it fall around Earth rather than straight down.

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  147. Q147.SSC CGL 2025

    Let x = √3 + √5 and y = √8 + √2. Which is greater?

    1. A.

      x=y

    2. B.

      x>y

    3. C.

      y>x

    4. D.

      Cannot be determined

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    x = sqrt3 + sqrt5 is approximately 1.732 + 2.236 = 3.968. y = sqrt8 + sqrt2 is approximately 2.828 + 1.414 = 4.242. Therefore y is greater than x.

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  148. Q148.SSC CGL 2025

    The number of red, blue, and green marbles in a bag is in the ratio 3 : 4 : 6. If 20 red marbles, 15 blue
    marbles, and an unknown number of green marbles are added to the bag, the ratio of red, blue, and green marbles
    becomes 4 : 5 : 7. Determine the number of green marbles added.

    1. A.

      3

    2. B.

      5

    3. C.

      7

    4. D.

      9

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    Let the initial numbers of red, blue and green marbles be 3x, 4x and 6x. From (3x + 20):(4x + 15) = 4:5, x = 40. The new red count is 140, so one part is 35 and the final green count should be 7 x 35 = 245. Initial green count is 240, so 5 green marbles were added.

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  149. Q149.SSC CGL 2025

    Evaluate the continued fraction:

    image.png

    In symbols: x = 2 + 1/(3 + 1/(4 + 1/2)).

    1. A.

      67/29

    2. B.

      41/17

    3. C.

      45/19

    4. D.

      47/20

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Concept: A continued fraction is a nested expression such as a + 1/(b + 1/(c + 1/d)). Each 1/… stands over the whole level beneath it, so the value has to be built from the innermost denominator outward. Two identities do all the work: an integer plus a fraction combines as a + p/q = (aq + p)/q, and the reciprocal of a fraction is 1/(p/q) = q/p.

    Application: unfold the given expression one level at a time, starting at the bottom.

    1. Innermost level: 4 + 1/2 = (4 × 2 + 1)/2 = 9/2.

    2. Its reciprocal: 1/(9/2) = 2/9.

    3. Next level up: 3 + 2/9 = (3 × 9 + 2)/9 = 29/9.

    4. Its reciprocal: 1/(29/9) = 9/29.

    5. Outermost level: x = 2 + 9/29 = (2 × 29 + 9)/29 = 67/29.

    Cross-check: repeating the same climb in decimals gives 4 + 1/2 = 4.5, then 3 + 1/4.5 = 3.2222…, then 2 + 1/3.2222… = 2.3103…, and 67/29 = 2.3103…, so both routes agree. Also, 29 is prime and does not divide 67, so 67/29 is already in lowest terms.

    Common pitfall: reading the expression top-down and adding the pieces separately, as in 2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + 1/2, changes its meaning — every 1/… applies to the whole level written below it, not to the single number standing next to it.

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  150. Q150.SSC CGL 2025

    A and B invest ₹40,000 and ₹60,000 respectively in a business. What is A's share in a profit of ₹50,000?

    1. A.

      ₹15,000

    2. B.

      ₹20,000

    3. C.

      ₹25,000

    4. D.

      ₹30,000

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    The investment ratio is 40000:60000 = 2:3. A's share of Rs. 50,000 is 2/5 x 50,000 = Rs. 20,000.

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  151. Q151.SSC CGL 2025

    A and B contribute to a business investment in the ratio 3:5. They earn a profit of ₹64,000. A is a working
    partner and receives 10% of the profit extra. What is A's total share?

    1. A.

      ₹26,500

    2. B.

      ₹28,000

    3. C.

      ₹38,500

    4. D.

      ₹36,000

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    A first receives 10% of the total profit as the working partner's extra share: 10% of Rs. 64,000 = Rs. 6,400. The remaining Rs. 57,600 is divided in the investment ratio 3:5, so A's share from the balance is 3/8 x 57,600 = Rs. 21,600. Total share of A = 21,600 + 6,400 = Rs. 28,000.

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  152. Q152.SSC CGL 2025

    In a team of 75 employees, the average monthly sales per employee is ₹ 1.8 lakh. If 30 junior employees
    average ₹ 1.2 lakh each, what is the average monthly sales figure (in ₹ lakh) for the senior employees?

    1. A.

      ₹4.2 lakh

    2. B.

      ₹2.2 lakh

    3. C.

      ₹2.8 lakh

    4. D.

      ₹2.7 lakh

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    Total sales = 75 x 1.8 = 135 lakh. Sales by 30 junior employees = 30 x 1.2 = 36 lakh. Sales by 45 senior employees = 99 lakh, so their average is 99/45 = 2.2 lakh.

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  153. Q153.SSC CGL 2025

    The price of petrol shot up by 5%. Before the hike, the price was Rs. 82 per litre. A man travels 3045 km
    every month and his car gives a mileage of 15 km per litre. What is the increase in the monthly expenditure (to the
    nearest Rs.) on the man's travel due to the hike in the petrol prices?

    1. A.

      ₹820

    2. B.

      ₹832

    3. C.

      ₹845

    4. D.

      ₹850

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    Monthly fuel used = 3045/15 = 203 litres. The price increase is 5% of Rs. 82 = Rs. 4.10 per litre. Increase in monthly expenditure = 203 x 4.10 = Rs. 832.30, nearest Rs. 832.

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  154. Q154.SSC CGL 2025

    A company placed an order for 20 high-end laptops and some quantity of standard desktops. The price of a high-end laptop was 5 times that of a standard desktop. Due to a mistake, the number of laptops and desktops was interchanged in the delivery. This caused the total bill to increase by 80%. What was the ratio of the number of high-end laptops to standard desktops in the original order?

    1. A.

      1:2

    2. B.

      2:1

    3. C.

      5:2

    4. D.

      2:5

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    Let the desktop price be d, so laptop price is 5d. Original bill = 20 x 5d + xd = (100 + x)d. Interchanged bill = 5xd + 20d = (5x + 20)d. Since the bill increased by 80%, 5x + 20 = 1.8(100 + x), giving x = 50. The original laptop:desktop ratio is 20:50 = 2:5.

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  155. Q155.SSC CGL 2025

    Find the compound interest on ₹8,000 at 12% per annum for 3 years 4 months, compounded annually.

    1. A.

      ₹3,000

    2. B.

      ₹4,000

    3. C.

      ₹3,689

    4. D.

      ₹3,600

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    For 3 complete years, amount = 8000 x 1.12^3 = 11239.424. For the remaining 4 months, simple interest on this amount at 12% per annum is 4%, so final amount is about 11689. Compound interest = 11689 - 8000 = 3689.

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  156. Q156.SSC CGL 2025

    A candy shop owner buys three kinds of candies: red, blue, and green. Red candies are purchased at 3 for
    ₹15, blue candies at 4 for ₹18, and green candies at 5 for ₹22. He mixes them in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. He sells all the
    mixed candies at 2 for ₹10. What is his approximate gain or loss percentage?

    1. A.

      Loss of 9.2%

    2. B.

      Profit of 9.29%

    3. C.

      Profit of 10%

    4. D.

      Loss of 10%

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    Cost per red candy = Rs. 5, per blue candy = Rs. 4.50, and per green candy = Rs. 4.40. In the ratio 1:1:2, cost of 4 candies = 5 + 4.5 + 8.8 = Rs. 18.30. Selling price of 4 candies is Rs. 20, so gain percentage = 1.70/18.30 x 100, approximately 9.29%.

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  157. Q157.SSC CGL 2025

    The ratio of boys to girls in a school is 7:5. If 20 more girls join the school, the new ratio of boys to girls
    becomes 7:6. What is the total number of students in the school initially?

    1. A.

      200

    2. B.

      240

    3. C.

      300

    4. D.

      360

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    Let boys:girls initially be 7x:5x. After 20 girls join, 7x:(5x + 20) = 7:6. Hence 6x = 5x + 20, so x = 20 and initial total = 12x = 240.

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  158. Q158.SSC CGL 2025

    A, B, and C are capable of completing a job in 30, 45, and 90 days, respectively. A works every day, while
    B and C join A every fifth day. How long will it take to finish the task?

    1. A.

      25 days

    2. B.

      18 days

    3. C.

      16 days

    4. D.

      12 days

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    In four ordinary days A completes 4/30 = 2/15 of the job. On every fifth day A, B and C together complete 1/30 + 1/45 + 1/90 = 1/15. Thus each 5-day cycle completes 1/5 of the job, so the task takes 25 days.

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  159. Q159.SSC CGL 2025

    A 100-litre solution contains acid and water in the ratio 3:2. Some quantity of this solution is removed and
    replaced with pure acid. If the final ratio of acid to water becomes 7:3, how many litres of solution were replaced?

    1. A.

      35 litres

    2. B.

      25 litres

    3. C.

      50 litres

    4. D.

      20 litres

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    Initially acid = 60 L and water = 40 L. If x litres are replaced, final acid = 60 - 0.6x + x = 60 + 0.4x and water = 40 - 0.4x. Using (60 + 0.4x):(40 - 0.4x) = 7:3 gives x = 25.

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  160. Q160.SSC CGL 2025

    The ratio of the efficiencies of two workers, P and Q, is 5 : 2. If P can complete a project in 12 days, how
    many days will Q take to complete the same project alone?

    1. A.

      24 days

    2. B.

      30 days

    3. C.

      35 days

    4. D.

      40 days

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    Efficiency and time are inversely proportional. Since P:Q efficiency = 5:2 and P takes 12 days, Q takes 12 x 5/2 = 30 days.

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  161. Q161.SSC CGL 2025

    A car starts from point P on a circular track and an SUV starts from point Q, which is 600 meters ahead of P
    in the direction of motion. The car's speed is 15 m/s, and the SUV's speed is 10 m/s. The circumference of the
    track is 1.5 km. How much distance will the car have traveled when it first overtakes the SUV?

    1. A.

      900 m

    2. B.

      1200 m

    3. C.

      1500 m

    4. D.

      1800 m

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    The car gains on the SUV at 15 - 10 = 5 m/s. To cover the 600 m gap it needs 600/5 = 120 s. In that time the car travels 15 x 120 = 1800 m.

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  162. Q162.SSC CGL 2025

    A circular park having a radius of 14 m. If a 1.5 m wide path is built around it, what is the approximate area
    of the path?

    1. A.

      139 m²

    2. B.

      135 m²

    3. C.

      142 m²

    4. D.

      150 m²

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    The path area equals the area of the outer circle minus the inner circle. Outer radius = 14 + 1.5 = 15.5 m, so area = pi(15.5^2 - 14^2) = pi x 44.25, approximately 139 m^2.

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  163. Q163.SSC CGL 2025

    What is 5π/4 radians in degrees?

    1. A.

      225°

    2. B.

      180°

    3. C.

      240°

    4. D.

      360°

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    To convert radians to degrees, multiply by 180°/pi. Thus 5pi/4 radians = 5 x 180°/4 = 225°.

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  164. Q164.SSC CGL 2025

    The line y = -x + 4 passes through which of the following points?

    1. A.

      (2, 2)

    2. B.

      (5, 4)

    3. C.

      (1, 2)

    4. D.

      (3, 6)

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Substitute each point in y = -x + 4. For (2, 2), the right side is -2 + 4 = 2, so it lies on the line.

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  165. Q165.SSC CGL 2025

    What is the central angle of a sector with an arc length of 10 cm in a circle of radius 5 cm?

    1. A.

      6 radians

    2. B.

      3 radians

    3. C.

      2 radians

    4. D.

      4 radians

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Arc length s = r theta, where theta is in radians. Here theta = 10/5 = 2 radians.

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  166. Q166.SSC CGL 2025

    If tan(90° – A) = √3, what is sin A?

    1. A.

      1/2

    2. B.

      √3/2

    3. C.

      √2/2

    4. D.

      3/4

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    tan(90° - A) = cot A. If cot A = sqrt3, then tan A = 1/sqrt3. Therefore A = 30° and sin A = 1/2.

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  167. Q167.SSC CGL 2025

    If x = √7, determine the value of x + 1/x.

    1. A.

      8√7/7

    2. B.

      7√7/8

    3. C.

      7√7/9

    4. D.

      9√7/7

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    For x = sqrt7, x + 1/x = sqrt7 + 1/sqrt7 = (7 + 1)/sqrt7 = 8/sqrt7 = 8sqrt7/7.

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  168. Q168.SSC CGL 2025

    Two triangles are similar with sides in the ratio 3:5. What is the ratio of their areas?

    1. A.

      3:5

    2. B.

      5:3

    3. C.

      9:25

    4. D.

      25:9

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    For similar triangles, the ratio of areas equals the square of the ratio of corresponding sides. With sides 3:5, the area ratio is 9:25.

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  169. Q169.SSC CGL 2025

    If x = √((2+√3)/(2-√3)) , then determine the value of x² + x - 9?

    1. A.

      3√3

    2. B.

      5√3

    3. C.

      7√3

    4. D.

      9√3

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    Rationalizing gives (2 + sqrt3)/(2 - sqrt3) = 7 + 4sqrt3 = (2 + sqrt3)^2. Thus x = 2 + sqrt3, and x^2 + x - 9 = 5sqrt3.

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  170. Q170.SSC CGL 2025

    The angles of a cyclic quadrilateral are in the ratio 1:2:3:4. What is the measure of the smallest angle?

    1. A.

      36°

    2. B.

      72°

    3. C.

      108°

    4. D.

      144°

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Angles of a cyclic quadrilateral sum to 360°. With ratio 1:2:3:4, the total is 10 parts, so one part is 36° and the smallest angle is 36°.

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  171. Q171.SSC CGL 2025

    If secA = 13/5 and A is acute, find sinA

    1. A.

      5/13

    2. B.

      12/13

    3. C.

      13/12

    4. D.

      13/5

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    If sec A = 13/5, then cos A = 5/13. Since A is acute, sin A = sqrt(1 - 25/169) = 12/13.

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  172. Q172.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word:
    ABNEGATE

    1. A.

      Demand

    2. B.

      Accept

    3. C.

      Renounce

    4. D.

      Support

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Abnegate means to renounce, reject or give up something.

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  173. Q173.SSC CGL 2025

    Choose the correct meaning of idiom:
    Move heaven and earth

    1. A.

      To relocate frequently

    2. B.

      To work tirelessly to achieve something

    3. C.

      To stay silent in protest

    4. D.

      To follow blindly

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    The idiom 'move heaven and earth' means to make every possible effort or work tirelessly to achieve something.

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  174. Q174.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
    Puissant

    1. A.

      Feeble

    2. B.

      Robust

    3. C.

      Powerful

    4. D.

      Strong

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Puissant means powerful or strong. Its antonym is feeble.

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  175. Q175.SSC CGL 2025

    Identify the misspelt word

    1. A.

      Supersede

    2. B.

      Perseverance

    3. C.

      Priviledge

    4. D.

      Assassinate

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    The misspelt word is 'Priviledge'; the correct spelling is 'Privilege'.

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  176. Q176.SSC CGL 2025

    Spot the correct spelling of a drug-effect psychology field.

    1. A.

      Psychopharmacology

    2. B.

      Psychopharmacholog

    3. C.

      Psychopharmeocology

    4. D.

      Psychopharmocology

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    The correct spelling of the drug-effect psychology field is 'Psychopharmacology'.

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  177. Q177.SSC CGL 2025

    Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A person who abstains from all forms of indulgence'.

    1. A.

      Ascetic

    2. B.

      Agnostic

    3. C.

      Mystic

    4. D.

      Skeptic

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    An ascetic is a person who abstains from worldly pleasures or indulgence.

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  178. Q178.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the correct option:
    Neither the principal investigator ___ the co-authors anticipated the backlash.

    1. A.

      nor

    2. B.

      or

    3. C.

      and

    4. D.

      nor did

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    The correlative conjunction is 'neither ... nor'. Therefore the blank should be 'nor'.

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  179. Q179.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the correct option:

    The board will convene next Friday, ____ final approval is expected.

    1. A.

      at which

    2. B.

      on which

    3. C.

      when

    4. D.

      whereupon

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    The clause refers to a time, 'next Friday', so 'when final approval is expected' is the correct expression.

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  180. Q180.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the correct option:

    Nothing short of a paradigm shift will ____ the entrenched bureaucratic inertia.

    1. A.

      persuade

    2. B.

      dislodge

    3. C.

      dissuasion

    4. D.

      disillusion

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    The sentence means only a paradigm shift can remove entrenched bureaucratic inertia. 'Dislodge' fits that meaning.

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  181. Q181.SSC CGL 2025

    Find the part of the sentence that contains an error:

    Much of what appears to be coordination (1)/ among the regulatory bodies and private stakeholders (2)/ are, in
    fact, coincidental overlaps (3)/ caused by differing mandates. (4)

    1. A.

      (1)

    2. B.

      (2)

    3. C.

      (3)

    4. D.

      (4)

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    The subject is 'Much of what appears to be coordination', which is singular. Therefore 'are' in part 3 should be 'is'.

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  182. Q182.SSC CGL 2025

    Find the part of the sentence that contains an error:
    That the framework lacks provisions for backward compatibility (1)/ is less problematic than the assumption (2)/
    that all peripheral institutions will, without coercion, (3)/ adheres to the central directive as framed. (4)

    1. A.

      (1)

    2. B.

      (2)

    3. C.

      (3)

    4. D.

      (4)

    Correct answer: D

    Solution

    The subject of the verb is plural: 'all peripheral institutions'. Therefore the verb should be 'adhere', not 'adheres'. The error is in part 4.

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  183. Q183.SSC CGL 2025

    Change the following from active to passive:
    People can seldom access archived manuscripts without clearance.

    1. A.

      Archived manuscripts can seldom being accessed without clearance.

    2. B.

      Archived manuscripts could seldom be accessed without clearance.

    3. C.

      Archived manuscripts can seldom be accessed without clearance.

    4. D.

      Archived manuscripts are seldom able to be accessed without clearance.

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    The active sentence uses modal 'can' with passive construction. The correct passive form is: 'Archived manuscripts can seldom be accessed without clearance.'

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  184. Q184.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word:

    The prince's gules dominated the family coat of arms.

    1. A.

      The tapestry featured gules and argent prominently.

    2. B.

      The chef prepared a sauce of deep gules and cumin.

    3. C.

      The gules border signified martial lineage.

    4. D.

      The herald explained the symbolism of gules to visitors.

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    Concept

    A homonym is a word that keeps exactly the same form - the same spelling and the same pronunciation - while carrying a completely unrelated meaning. The form therefore settles nothing; only the sense a word bears inside its own sentence does.

    So an item of this kind is answered in two moves: first fix the sense of the highlighted word in the sentence you are given, then find the sentence in which that identical form is made to carry some other sense.

    Applying it here

    In the given sentence the word sits on a family coat of arms. There gules is the heraldic name of the colour red, one of the tinctures used in describing arms, alongside argent for silver and azure for blue. The sense to be matched against is therefore 'the colour red in heraldry'.

    Reading each sentence for the sense its context forces on the word gives:

    Sentence

    Sense the context forces on gules

    The tapestry featured gules and argent prominently.

    Paired with argent, the heraldic name for silver: both are tinctures named as part of a design - the heraldic sense.

    The gules border signified martial lineage.

    A border on an armorial device, read for what it signifies about lineage - the heraldic sense.

    The herald explained the symbolism of gules to visitors.

    Explained by a herald, the officer of arms himself - the heraldic sense.

    The chef prepared a sauce of deep gules and cumin.

    Set beside cumin as something stirred into a sauce - an edible substance, with no connection to heraldry.

    Result

    Three of the sentences keep the word squarely inside heraldry. Only the sauce sentence steps outside it: there the same form names something that goes into food beside cumin, a meaning wholly unrelated to the red tincture on the prince's coat of arms. 'The chef prepared a sauce of deep gules and cumin' is therefore the sentence that contains the homonym.

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  185. Q185.SSC CGL 2025

    Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure:

    The package is delivered to the office every morning.

    1. A.

      The office delivers the package every morning.

    2. B.

      Someone delivers the package to the office every morning.

    3. C.

      The office has delivered the package every morning.

    4. D.

      The package delivers itself to the office every morning.

    Correct answer: B

    Solution

    The passive sentence is in the simple present: 'The package is delivered...' In active voice, an unspecified subject can be 'someone': 'Someone delivers the package to the office every morning.'

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  186. Q186.SSC CGL 2025

    Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage :

    The proliferation of social media has fundamentally transformed the democratic landscape, acting both as a
    catalyst for civic engagement and a conduit for manipulation. Platforms like Twitter, Facebook, and
    Instagram, once relegated to the domain of personal expression, now serve as powerful instruments of
    political discourse, enabling citizens to articulate opinions, mobilize for causes, and scrutinize authority in
    real-time. At its core, democracy thrives on the free flow of information, and social media ostensibly
    democratizes this process by dismantling traditional gatekeeping. Political leaders communicate directly with
    constituents, bypassing editorial filters, while grassroots movements harness virality to amplify marginalized
    voices. During critical events—be it elections, protests, or legislative debates—social media acts as a digital
    agora, fostering participatory dialogue that was once confined to town halls or print columns. However, this
    unprecedented openness is double-edged. The same platforms that disseminate truth can also propagate
    misinformation, polarize public opinion, and algorithmically reinforce ideological silos. Electoral
    interference through fake accounts, coordinated trolling, and the spread of disinformation campaigns have
    threatened electoral integrity in several democracies. Moreover, emotionally charged content, optimized for
    engagement rather than accuracy, often eclipses nuanced debate, reducing political discourse to a cacophony
    of outrage. The role of social media in democracy, therefore, is contingent not just on its technological
    architecture, but on the ethical frameworks governing its use. Regulatory oversight, media literacy, and
    algorithmic transparency are essential to harness its democratic potential while mitigating its subversive tendencies. In essence, social media is neither inherently virtuous nor inherently corrosive—it is a mirror of
    societal intent. Whether it becomes a pillar of democratic resilience or a tool of populist distortion depends
    largely on how it is wielded by citizens, institutions, and platforms alike.

    What primary democratic function does social media serve, as per the paragraph?

    1. A.

      Promoting entertainment

    2. B.

      Replacing newspapers

    3. C.

      Facilitating free flow of information

    4. D.

      Organizing trade unions

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    The passage says democracy thrives on the free flow of information and social media democratizes that process by reducing traditional gatekeeping. Thus its primary democratic function is facilitating free flow of information.

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  187. Q187.SSC CGL 2025

    Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage :

    The proliferation of social media has fundamentally transformed the democratic landscape, acting both as a
    catalyst for civic engagement and a conduit for manipulation. Platforms like Twitter, Facebook, and
    Instagram, once relegated to the domain of personal expression, now serve as powerful instruments of
    political discourse, enabling citizens to articulate opinions, mobilize for causes, and scrutinize authority in
    real-time. At its core, democracy thrives on the free flow of information, and social media ostensibly
    democratizes this process by dismantling traditional gatekeeping. Political leaders communicate directly with
    constituents, bypassing editorial filters, while grassroots movements harness virality to amplify marginalized
    voices. During critical events—be it elections, protests, or legislative debates—social media acts as a digital
    agora, fostering participatory dialogue that was once confined to town halls or print columns. However, this
    unprecedented openness is double-edged. The same platforms that disseminate truth can also propagate
    misinformation, polarize public opinion, and algorithmically reinforce ideological silos. Electoral
    interference through fake accounts, coordinated trolling, and the spread of disinformation campaigns have
    threatened electoral integrity in several democracies. Moreover, emotionally charged content, optimized for
    engagement rather than accuracy, often eclipses nuanced debate, reducing political discourse to a cacophony
    of outrage. The role of social media in democracy, therefore, is contingent not just on its technological
    architecture, but on the ethical frameworks governing its use. Regulatory oversight, media literacy, and
    algorithmic transparency are essential to harness its democratic potential while mitigating its subversive tendencies. In essence, social media is neither inherently virtuous nor inherently corrosive—it is a mirror of
    societal intent. Whether it becomes a pillar of democratic resilience or a tool of populist distortion depends
    largely on how it is wielded by citizens, institutions, and platforms alike.

    What makes social media a double-edged tool in democratic societies?

    1. A.

      Its affordability

    2. B.

      Its visual design

    3. C.

      Its ability to spread both truth and misinformation

    4. D.

      Its international reach

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    The passage calls social media double-edged because the same platforms can spread truth and also misinformation, polarization and manipulation.

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  188. Q188.SSC CGL 2025

    Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage :

    The proliferation of social media has fundamentally transformed the democratic landscape, acting both as a
    catalyst for civic engagement and a conduit for manipulation. Platforms like Twitter, Facebook, and
    Instagram, once relegated to the domain of personal expression, now serve as powerful instruments of
    political discourse, enabling citizens to articulate opinions, mobilize for causes, and scrutinize authority in
    real-time. At its core, democracy thrives on the free flow of information, and social media ostensibly
    democratizes this process by dismantling traditional gatekeeping. Political leaders communicate directly with
    constituents, bypassing editorial filters, while grassroots movements harness virality to amplify marginalized
    voices. During critical events—be it elections, protests, or legislative debates—social media acts as a digital
    agora, fostering participatory dialogue that was once confined to town halls or print columns. However, this
    unprecedented openness is double-edged. The same platforms that disseminate truth can also propagate
    misinformation, polarize public opinion, and algorithmically reinforce ideological silos. Electoral
    interference through fake accounts, coordinated trolling, and the spread of disinformation campaigns have
    threatened electoral integrity in several democracies. Moreover, emotionally charged content, optimized for
    engagement rather than accuracy, often eclipses nuanced debate, reducing political discourse to a cacophony
    of outrage. The role of social media in democracy, therefore, is contingent not just on its technological
    architecture, but on the ethical frameworks governing its use. Regulatory oversight, media literacy, and
    algorithmic transparency are essential to harness its democratic potential while mitigating its subversive tendencies. In essence, social media is neither inherently virtuous nor inherently corrosive—it is a mirror of
    societal intent. Whether it becomes a pillar of democratic resilience or a tool of populist distortion depends
    largely on how it is wielded by citizens, institutions, and platforms alike.

    According to the paragraph, which element amplifies marginalized voices through social media?

    1. A.

      Editorial boards

    2. B.

      Gatekeeping journalism

    3. C.

      Viral reach and grassroots mobilization

    4. D.

      Institutional press

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    The passage states that grassroots movements use virality to amplify marginalized voices. Therefore viral reach and grassroots mobilization are the correct elements.

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  189. Q189.SSC CGL 2025

    Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage :

    The proliferation of social media has fundamentally transformed the democratic landscape, acting both as a
    catalyst for civic engagement and a conduit for manipulation. Platforms like Twitter, Facebook, and
    Instagram, once relegated to the domain of personal expression, now serve as powerful instruments of
    political discourse, enabling citizens to articulate opinions, mobilize for causes, and scrutinize authority in
    real-time. At its core, democracy thrives on the free flow of information, and social media ostensibly
    democratizes this process by dismantling traditional gatekeeping. Political leaders communicate directly with
    constituents, bypassing editorial filters, while grassroots movements harness virality to amplify marginalized
    voices. During critical events—be it elections, protests, or legislative debates—social media acts as a digital
    agora, fostering participatory dialogue that was once confined to town halls or print columns. However, this
    unprecedented openness is double-edged. The same platforms that disseminate truth can also propagate
    misinformation, polarize public opinion, and algorithmically reinforce ideological silos. Electoral
    interference through fake accounts, coordinated trolling, and the spread of disinformation campaigns have
    threatened electoral integrity in several democracies. Moreover, emotionally charged content, optimized for
    engagement rather than accuracy, often eclipses nuanced debate, reducing political discourse to a cacophony
    of outrage. The role of social media in democracy, therefore, is contingent not just on its technological
    architecture, but on the ethical frameworks governing its use. Regulatory oversight, media literacy, and
    algorithmic transparency are essential to harness its democratic potential while mitigating its subversive tendencies. In essence, social media is neither inherently virtuous nor inherently corrosive—it is a mirror of
    societal intent. Whether it becomes a pillar of democratic resilience or a tool of populist distortion depends
    largely on how it is wielded by citizens, institutions, and platforms alike.

    What does the author suggest as a critical solution to social media misuse in democracies?

    1. A.

      Enhanced meme culture

    2. B.

      Legalizing all content

    3. C.

      Algorithmic transparency and media literacy

    4. D.

      Global censorship policies

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    The passage says regulatory oversight, media literacy and algorithmic transparency are essential to reduce misuse while preserving democratic potential. Hence the critical solution is algorithmic transparency and media literacy.

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  190. Q190.SSC CGL 2025

    Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage :

    The proliferation of social media has fundamentally transformed the democratic landscape, acting both as a
    catalyst for civic engagement and a conduit for manipulation. Platforms like Twitter, Facebook, and
    Instagram, once relegated to the domain of personal expression, now serve as powerful instruments of
    political discourse, enabling citizens to articulate opinions, mobilize for causes, and scrutinize authority in
    real-time. At its core, democracy thrives on the free flow of information, and social media ostensibly
    democratizes this process by dismantling traditional gatekeeping. Political leaders communicate directly with
    constituents, bypassing editorial filters, while grassroots movements harness virality to amplify marginalized
    voices. During critical events—be it elections, protests, or legislative debates—social media acts as a digital
    agora, fostering participatory dialogue that was once confined to town halls or print columns. However, this
    unprecedented openness is double-edged. The same platforms that disseminate truth can also propagate
    misinformation, polarize public opinion, and algorithmically reinforce ideological silos. Electoral
    interference through fake accounts, coordinated trolling, and the spread of disinformation campaigns have
    threatened electoral integrity in several democracies. Moreover, emotionally charged content, optimized for
    engagement rather than accuracy, often eclipses nuanced debate, reducing political discourse to a cacophony
    of outrage. The role of social media in democracy, therefore, is contingent not just on its technological
    architecture, but on the ethical frameworks governing its use. Regulatory oversight, media literacy, and
    algorithmic transparency are essential to harness its democratic potential while mitigating its subversive tendencies. In essence, social media is neither inherently virtuous nor inherently corrosive—it is a mirror of
    societal intent. Whether it becomes a pillar of democratic resilience or a tool of populist distortion depends
    largely on how it is wielded by citizens, institutions, and platforms alike.

    In the author’s view, what determines whether social media supports or undermines democracy?

    1. A.

      Political advertisements

    2. B.

      How platforms are funded

    3. C.

      Societal intent and ethical usage

    4. D.

      Popularity of influencers

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    The author says social media is a mirror of societal intent and its democratic effect depends on how citizens, institutions and platforms use it. Therefore societal intent and ethical usage determine its impact.

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  191. Q191.SSC CGL 2025

    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence::
    No sooner had I reached the station when the train departed.

    1. A.

      than the train departed

    2. B.

      then the train departed

    3. C.

      when the train had departed

    4. D.

      than did the train depart

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    The correlative expression is 'No sooner ... than'. Therefore the corrected sentence is: 'No sooner had I reached the station than the train departed.'

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  192. Q192.SSC CGL 2025

    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence:
    The manager asked to the clerk to submit the report.

    1. A.

      asked the clerk that submit the report

    2. B.

      requested the clerk to submit report

    3. C.

      asked the clerk to submit the report

    4. D.

      told to the clerk submit report

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    The correct construction is 'asked the clerk to submit the report'. The verb 'asked' takes the object directly, without 'to' after it.

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  193. Q193.SSC CGL 2025

    A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most
    accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech.
    She said, "I saw him last night."

    1. A.

      She said she had seen him the previous night.

    2. B.

      She said she has seen him last night.

    3. C.

      She said she was seeing him last night.

    4. D.

      She said she had saw him the previous night.

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    In indirect speech, simple past in direct speech generally backshifts to past perfect, and 'last night' becomes 'the previous night'. Therefore the sentence becomes: She said she had seen him the previous night.

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  194. Q194.SSC CGL 2025

    A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech.

    The librarian said that silence must be maintained in the library.

    1. A.

      "Silence should be maintained in the library," said the librarian.

    2. B.

      "You will maintain silence in the library," the librarian said.

    3. C.

      "Maintain silence in the library," said the librarian.

    4. D.

      "Must you maintain silence in the library?" asked the librarian.

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Concept: Converting reported speech back into direct speech has to preserve three things at once — the type of the sentence (statement, command or question), the strength of the modal, and the speaker's purpose. A reported clause of obligation does not by itself fix one single original wording: a duty laid down by an authority may have been spoken either as a declarative carrying the modal or as an imperative, and English expresses a directive in direct speech as an imperative — the base form of the verb, with the subject 'you' understood rather than written. When more than one form could have produced the report, the accurate direct rendering is the one that keeps the modal at its original strength and keeps the same people addressed.

    Application: The reporting clause here is “The librarian said that silence must be maintained in the library.” The librarian is the authority of that room, 'must' is the strongest obligation modal in English, and the duty falls on the people using the library, so what was spoken carried the force of an instruction. The fully literal direct rendering would be “Silence must be maintained in the library,” said the librarian — but that form is not offered, and the stem asks for the option that conveys the sentence MOST ACCURATELY among those given. That option is the imperative “Maintain silence in the library,” said the librarian: of the four, it alone keeps the obligation at full strength and keeps it aimed at the library's users, differing from the literal rendering only in construction, not in force.

    Contrast: Each of the other renderings loses more than a change of construction:

    • “Silence should be maintained in the library” keeps the statement shape but exchanges 'must' for 'should'. 'Should' expresses advisability — something recommended, which the hearer may reasonably decline — while 'must' records a binding requirement.

    • “You will maintain silence in the library” turns the obligation into 'will', an assertion about what a named addressee is going to do at a future time. A prediction or an assurance is not the duty the original records.

    • “Must you maintain silence in the library?” moves the modal in front of the subject to build a question, which asks the hearer for information. The original reports something the librarian said, not something the librarian asked.

    Cross-check: Check each option by reporting it back with a plain reporting verb and seeing how far the result drifts from the sentence we were given. The imperative would ordinarily be reported with a directive construction — “told them to maintain silence” — so it drifts in construction, but its obligation is undiminished and still aimed at the library's users. The other three drift in meaning: “Silence should be maintained” reports back with a weakened obligation, “You will maintain silence” reports back as a statement about what someone was going to do, and the interrogative reports back as “asked whether they had to maintain silence”, a question rather than something said. Only the imperative leaves the force of 'must' intact, which is why it is the closest of the four.

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  195. Q195.SSC CGL 2025

    Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph:

    1. Consequently, effective communication hinges on more than just the words we choose.
    2. Non-verbal cues,
    such as tone of voice, facial expressions, and body language, can convey more meaning than the verbal message
    itself.
    3. Communication is a complex process involving the exchange of information, ideas, and feelings between
    individuals.
    4. It's often the subtle signals that tell us how a message is truly being received or intended.

    1. A.

      3, 2, 1, 4

    2. B.

      2, 4, 1, 3

    3. C.

      1, 4, 3, 2

    4. D.

      3, 4, 2, 1

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Sentence 3 introduces communication. Sentence 2 explains non-verbal cues, Sentence 1 draws the consequence, and Sentence 4 adds the role of subtle signals. The coherent order is 3, 2, 1, 4.

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  196. Q196.SSC CGL 2025

    Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph:

    1. A key strategy is to diversify energy sources, transitioning from fossil fuels to renewable alternatives like solar,
    wind, and geothermal power.
    2. To mitigate the worst effects of climate change, the global community must
    drastically reduce its reliance on carbon-intensive energy production.
    3. This shift not only decreases greenhouse
    gas emissions but also improves air quality and creates new economic opportunities.
    4. Additionally, policies that
    promote energy efficiency in buildings and transportation can further lower overall energy consumption.

    1. A.

      2, 1, 3, 4

    2. B.

      1, 2, 3, 4

    3. C.

      4, 1, 2, 3

    4. D.

      2, 3, 1, 4

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Sentence 2 introduces the need to reduce carbon-intensive energy production. Sentence 1 gives diversification as the key strategy, Sentence 3 explains the benefits of this shift, and Sentence 4 adds another supporting policy. The order is 2, 1, 3, 4.

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  197. Q197.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following
    series:
    A E I, E I M, I M Q, M Q U, ?

    1. A.

      QUY

    2. B.

      QKS

    3. C.

      LMX

    4. D.

      KJS

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Each term shifts every letter four places forward: A E I, E I M, I M Q, M Q U. The next term is Q U Y.

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  198. Q198.SSC CGL 2025

    Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following
    series.
    ACE EIM IOU MUC ?

    1. A.

      QSA

    2. B.

      UHG

    3. C.

      QAK

    4. D.

      CGD

    Correct answer: C

    Solution

    Each position advances by 4 letters: first letters A, E, I, M, Q; second letters C, I, O, U, A; third letters E, M, U, C, K. The next cluster is QAK.

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  199. Q199.SSC CGL 2025

    What comes next: 12, 30, 56, 90, 132, ?

    1. A.

      182

    2. B.

      250

    3. C.

      190

    4. D.

      293

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    The differences are 18, 26, 34 and 42, increasing by 8 each time. The next difference is 50, so the next number is 132 + 50 = 182.

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  200. Q200.SSC CGL 2025

    What will be come at the place of question mark? 1, 2, 5, 26, 677, ?

    1. A.

      458330

    2. B.

      456976

    3. C.

      453625

    4. D.

      458329

    Correct answer: A

    Solution

    Each term is the square of the previous term plus 1: 1^2 + 1 = 2, 2^2 + 1 = 5, 5^2 + 1 = 26, and 26^2 + 1 = 677. Therefore the next term is 677^2 + 1 = 458330.

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